Anyone know a logical expression of Copenhagen Interpretation

danitaber
Messages
27
Reaction score
0
hiya! Does anyone know of any logical expressions of the Copenhagen Interpretation. I've read about it, I can summarize it, but I've never really seen anything other than discussions of it in pop-science books.

I'd really like to break it down if I could.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
danitaber said:
hiya! Does anyone know of any logical expressions of the Copenhagen Interpretation. .

The Copenhagen Interpretation itself is very vague, based upon "complementarity" and "duality" of things and so on. I think it is more a process of understanding than a clear position. I don't know myself exactly what's meant with it.
However, what most people call the "Copenhagen interpretation" is in fact the von Neuman interpretation. That, he made extremely clear in his classic book "mathematical foundations of quantum theory" (or something like it).
Most of the book is an attempt to put the Dirac delta function on firm mathematical basis, but in the last part he explains what is meant with his interpretation.
It simply comes down to "two physics": one is "system evolution" and the other is "observation". System evolution is what is done with Schroedinger's equation and so on, and observation is a random process: the projection of the state onto one of the eigenstates of the measurement operator, with the probability given by the norm squared.
It is the rule EVERY EXPERIMENTALIST IN THE WORLD uses.

cheers,
Patrick.
 
I would like to know the validity of the following criticism of one of Zeilinger's latest papers https://doi.org/10.48550/arXiv.2507.07756 "violation of bell inequality with unentangled photons" The review is by Francis Villatoro, in Spanish, https://francis.naukas.com/2025/07/26/sin-entrelazamiento-no-se-pueden-incumplir-las-desigualdades-de-bell/ I will translate and summarize the criticism as follows: -It is true that a Bell inequality is violated, but not a CHSH inequality. The...
I understand that the world of interpretations of quantum mechanics is very complex, as experimental data hasn't completely falsified the main deterministic interpretations (such as Everett), vs non-deterministc ones, however, I read in online sources that Objective Collapse theories are being increasingly challenged. Does this mean that deterministic interpretations are more likely to be true? I always understood that the "collapse" or "measurement problem" was how we phrased the fact that...
This is not, strictly speaking, a discussion of interpretations per se. We often see discussions based on QM as it was understood during the early days and the famous Einstein-Bohr debates. The problem with this is that things in QM have advanced tremendously since then, and the 'weirdness' that puzzles those attempting to understand QM has changed. I recently came across a synopsis of these advances, allowing those interested in interpretational issues to understand the modern view...
Back
Top