Are Partial Derivatives Commutative for Functions of Multiple Variables?

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Partial derivatives are not universally commutative for functions of multiple variables; their commutativity depends on the nature of the functions involved. For typical scalar functions, the expression holds true, as demonstrated with examples like f(x) = x². However, when dealing with matrices or non-commutative entities, the derivatives do not necessarily commute. The discussion also highlights the importance of clarifying the context of the derivatives being applied, as the interpretation can significantly alter the outcome. Understanding these nuances is crucial for accurate mathematical analysis.
Kyle.Nemeth
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Homework Statement


I would just like to know if this statement is true.

Homework Equations


\frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \frac{\partial g}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2}

The Attempt at a Solution


I've thought about this a bit and I haven't come to a conclusion. Thanks for the help! :smile:
 
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Well, it depends on ##f## and ##g## and not so on the partial derivative. If ##f## and ##g## are "normal" functions like ##f(x)=x^2## for example, then the statement is true. On the other hand, if they represent matrices then generally they wouldn't commute, ie. ##f\cdot g\neq g\cdot f## because ##g## and ##f## do not commute generally.
 
Kyle.Nemeth said:

Homework Statement


I would just like to know if this statement is true.

Homework Equations


\frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \frac{\partial g}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2}

The Attempt at a Solution


I've thought about this a bit and I haven't come to a conclusion. Thanks for the help! :smile:

If you set ##A = \partial g/\partial x## and ##B = \partial^2 f/\partial x^2##, you have written ##A B = B A##, which is true for any two real numbers.

However, if what you really meant was to have
\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left( g \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \right)
on one side and
\frac{\partial^2} {\partial x^2} \left( f \frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \right)
on the other, then that is a much different question.

Which did you mean?
 
I intended for the original question you had answered about AB=BA for any real number. I was assuming that the second derivative had acted on f and the first derivative had acted on g.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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