Are Particles Responsible for Magnetic Field Frequencies?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion clarifies that permanent magnets do not have photons flowing between their poles, as the magnetic field is an independent entity rather than being composed of particles. The electromagnetic field is described as a combined, inseparable entity, with electric and magnetic fields being manifestations depending on the observer's perspective. The source of the magnetic field in a permanent magnet is attributed to "bound surface currents" resulting from the magnetization of the material, which can be analyzed using Biot-Savart's law. The exchange effect is noted as an additional factor necessary for explaining ferromagnetism, while the relationship between particles and fields is emphasized, stating that particles are states of quantum fields. The conversation remains focused on the nature of magnetic fields and their underlying principles.
Mediocrates
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
So are there photons "flowing" from one end of a permanent magnet to the other? If so what determines the frequency?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, and that makes the second part moot.
 
Of what then is the field composed?
 
Nothing. Field is a field, entity that lives on it's own. Photons are "excitations" (whatever that means) of quantum electromagnetic field, but that doesn't justify the claim that em field is composed of anything.
 
There was another thread just yesterday that veered off massively, so I think it's worth pointing out that "electromagnetic" isn't just a convenient moniker to refer to the magnetic and electric field together, but rather that they are really are one combined, inseparable entity. That is, the classic "electric field" and "magnetic field" are manifestations depending on the observer, and indeed different observers might entirely disagree on whether a certain action was caused by an electric field, or a magnetic field.
 
  • Like
Likes Nugatory
For the OP @Mediocrates The best simple explanation for the source of the magnetic field in a permanent magnet=[e.g. a cylindrical magnet with uniform magnetization vector ## \vec{M} ##,(that points from the "-" end to the "+" end), that essentially has a "plus" (north) magnetic pole on one endface and a "minus" (south) magnetic pole on the other endface], is the explanation of "bound surface currents" from the magnetization that "circulate" around the outer cylindrical surface with the same geometry as that of the currents of a solenoid. Since these currents are the resultant edge effect of what could be viewed in a simplistic model as currents from the magnetic moments of individual atoms, there is no actual electrical charge transport from these currents. In any case, the magnetic field ## \vec{B} ## of the permanent magnet, both inside and outside the magnet can be computed from these hypothesized "surface currents" using Biot-Savart's law, and the results are consistent with the magnetic field that is observed.
 
@Charles Link , that is an engineering approximation that hardly elucidates the actual generation of the magnetic field in a permanent magnet.
 
rumborak said:
@Charles Link , that is an engineering approximation that hardly elucidates the actual generation of the magnetic field in a permanent magnet.
The exchange effect is an additional effect necessary to explain ferromagnetism, but the magnetic surface currents can be quantified with what I believe are highly accurate results. For a simple calculation, see the following post: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/magnetic-field-of-a-ferromagnetic-cylinder.863066/ Hopefully this doesn't start to lead too far off topic before the OP gets a chance to respond. ## \\ ## Also, Griffith's Electrodynamics book contains a very good derivation of the surface currents as he computes the vector potential ## \vec{A} ## from an arbitrary distribution of magnetization ## \vec{M} ##. I believe this result is in section 6.2 of his book.
 
Last edited:
Charles Link said:
The exchange effect is an additional effect necessary to explain ferromagnetism, but the magnetic surface currents can be quantified with what I believe are highly accurate results. For a simple calculation, see the following post: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/magnetic-field-of-a-ferromagnetic-cylinder.863066/ Hopefully this doesn't start to lead too far off topic before the OP gets a chance to respond. ## \\ ## Also, Griffith's Electrodynamics book contains a very good derivation of the surface currents as he computes the vector potential ## \vec{A} ## from an arbitrary distribution of magnetization ## \vec{M} ##. I believe this result is in section 6.2 of his book.
Charles ... you are making this far more complex than what a B level topic should be :smile:
 
  • #10
weirdoguy said:
Nothing. Field is a field, entity that lives on it's own. Photons are "excitations" (whatever that means) of quantum electromagnetic field, but that doesn't justify the claim that em field is composed of anything.
How would one determine the existence of a field in the absence of particles?
 
  • #11
That's probably more of a philosophical question since that scenario wouldn't be our universe.
 
  • #12
rumborak said:
That's probably more of a philosophical question since that scenario wouldn't be our universe.
Quess my question was, "can there be a field without a particle?" I thought particles give rise to fields?
 
  • #13
Mediocrates said:
I thought particles give rise to fields?

No it's the other way around, particles are states of (quantum) fields.
 

Similar threads

Back
Top