But actually, there is a problem. As I read in Bjorken-Drell (Fields), the Poisson brackets in the Coulomb gauge are taken to be something else, with "transverse delta" and not "dirac delta". So how is this consistent with my derivation?
I think your derivation of the Poisson brackets is correct, except for the case where ##P_0## occurs. Your Lagrangian does not contain ##\dot A_0##, so ##P_0## is zero. It does not make sense to use it as a canonical coordinate then, at least not in an easy manner. I think one easy way around this problem is to discard the scalar potential entirely and use only the vector potential ##\mathbf A##. Then the resulting Poisson bracket seems right.
The reason Bjorken&Drell give for the transverse delta is interesting. They say that the commutator
$$
[E_r(\mathbf x), A_s(\mathbf y)] = k\delta_{rs} \delta(\mathbf x-\mathbf y)
$$
can't be right, because the divergence of the left-hand side in ##\mathbf x## can give zero for field which has ##\nabla \cdot \mathbf E = 0##, while the right-hand side is always non-zero distribution ##k\partial_s \delta(\mathbf x-\mathbf y)##. This argument presumes that one can smuggle in the differentiation inside the commutator. I do not know the justification for this.
In the classical case, it works, but the fact that ##\nabla \cdot \mathbf E\ = 0## does not mean that the functional derivatives will come out zero. The reason is that the actual field may very well be divergence-less, but the functional derivatives do not preserve this when variations of the field are performed, the same way
partial differentiation does not preserve consistency of the variables with the actual motion in ordinary mechanics.
Craig&Thirunamachandran, sec. 3.5, say that the transverse delta occurs in the commutator because the vector potential is restricted by the Coulomb gauge
$$
\nabla \cdot \mathbf A = 0.
$$
I do not understand why this is so in their presentation, but perhaps it can be seen after the commutation relation is cast into Fourier representation - E, A are perpendicular to k, so the right-hand side should be too.I would like to admit a change of my view above, I thought about this a little bit and now I think Goldstein's reservations towards the Poisson bracket in field theory are perhaps not that serious problem. Still one point of his discussion I do not understand. He says in sec 124., p. 567
"
Further, if x_i plays the role of continuous indices on the mechanical variables, then fundamental Poisson brackets should involve functions at different values of x_i, which is not easily brought into the present formulation. For this reason there has been little exploration of canonical transformations for classical fields, a subject that for discrete systems proved to be so rich and consequential.
"
Can anybody explain?
EDIT: I edited minor mistake above.