xaratustra
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Was just thinking, is it ever possible that the same phenomenon can be fully explained by two theories that are not subset of each other?


Drakkith said:Of course. It's just extremely unlikely that both theories are equally simple with the same amount of assumptions. One would almost inevitably fall under Occam's Razor.
cosmik debris said:Physical theories are mathematical models and for any set of given data there are an infinite number of models that fit that data. As the other poster said, one usually chooses the simplest.