Max.Planck
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#Upper bounds of a given set
In my analysis book it says:
"If a set has a upper bound, there are infinitely many upper bounds".
Why is this correct? If you have some finite set, won't there be just one?
In my analysis book it says:
"If a set has a upper bound, there are infinitely many upper bounds".
Why is this correct? If you have some finite set, won't there be just one?