As f(x) -> oo and g(x) -> c, if c > 0 then f(x)g(x) -> oo

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a limit problem in calculus, specifically examining the behavior of the product of two functions as one approaches infinity and the other approaches a positive constant. The original poster attempts to prove that if \( \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = \infty \) and \( \lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x) = c \) with \( c > 0 \), then \( \lim_{x \rightarrow a} [f(x)g(x)] = \infty \).

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the original poster's proof attempt, focusing on the use of the epsilon-delta definition of limits. Some participants question the clarity and conciseness of the proof, suggesting that excessive detail may obscure the main argument. Others emphasize the importance of clarity for beginners in calculus.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on the proof's style and clarity. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach to presenting the proof, as differing opinions on detail and clarity are expressed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem is from an introductory calculus textbook, which may influence the level of detail expected in the proof. There is an acknowledgment of the audience's varying familiarity with logical reasoning and mathematical proofs.

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Homework Statement


If ## \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = \infty## and ##\lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x) = c ##, and if ##c>0## then prove that
##\lim_{x \rightarrow a} \left[ f(x)g(x)\right] = \infty~~ \text{if c > 0}##

Homework Equations


Epsilon Delta definition of the limit

The Attempt at a Solution


Let ##M>0## be arbitrary. Since ##c>0##, we have ##\frac{2M} c >0## and ##\frac c 2 > 0##. Since ##\lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = \infty## , ##\exists ~ \delta_1 >0## such that $$\forall ~ x \in D(f)\left[ 0 <|x-a| < \delta_1 \rightarrow f(x) > \frac{2M} c \right]\cdots\cdots(1)$$ Similarly, since ##\lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x) = c ## , ##\exists ~ \delta_2 >0 ## such that $$\forall ~ x \in D(g)\left[ 0 <|x-a| < \delta_2 \rightarrow |g(x)-c| < \frac c 2 \right] \cdots\cdots(2)$$ Here ##D(f)## and ##D(g)## are the domains of the functions ##f## and ##g##. Now let ##\delta = \text{min}(\delta_1, \delta_2) ## and let ##x_1 \in D(fg)## be arbitrary element. Then ##x_1 \in D(f)## and ##x_1 \in D(g)##. Also suppose ##0 <|x_1-a| < \delta ##. It follows from the definition of ##\delta## that ##0 <|x_1-a| < \delta_1 ## and ##0 <|x_1-a| < \delta_2 ##. So using the equations 1 and 2, it follows that ##f(x_1) > \frac{2M} c## and ##|g(x_1) - c| < \frac c 2##. So we have ##\frac c 2 < g(x_1) < \frac{3c} 2##. Since ##g(x_1) > \frac c 2 > 0##, we can deduce that ## f(x_1) g(x_1) > g(x_1) \frac{2M} c## But ##g(x_1) \frac{2M} c > \frac c 2 \bullet \frac{2M} c ##. So it follows that ##f(x_1) g(x_1) > \frac c 2 \bullet \frac{2M} c ##. Hence ## f(x_1) g(x_1) > M##. Since ##M>0## is arbitrary and ##x_1 \in D(fg)## is arbitrary, it follows that $$ \lim_{x \rightarrow a} \left[ f(x)g(x)\right] = \infty~~ \text{if c > 0}$$ Does this look correct ?
Thanks
 
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Just a comment on style. It's very good in general. At this level, however, you can start to be more succinct with the basic algebra. For example:

IssacNewton said:
So using the equations 1 and 2, it follows that ##f(x_1) > \frac{2M} c## and ##|g(x_1) - c| < \frac c 2##. So we have ##\frac c 2 < g(x_1) < \frac{3c} 2##. Since ##g(x_1) > \frac c 2 > 0##, we can deduce that ## f(x_1) g(x_1) > g(x_1) \frac{2M} c## But ##g(x_1) \frac{2M} c > \frac c 2 \bullet \frac{2M} c ##. So it follows that ##f(x_1) g(x_1) > \frac c 2 \bullet \frac{2M} c ##. Hence ## f(x_1) g(x_1) > M##.

I would do something like:

Equations 1 and 2 imply that ##f(x_1) > \frac{2M} c## and ##|g(x_1) - c| < \frac c 2##, hence ##g(x_1) > \frac{c}{2}## and ##f(x_1)g(x_1) > M##.

That's all you need.
 
Thanks PeroK, I see your point. But there might be people visiting this thread who may want details. This is an introductory Calculus problem I am doing here (from Stewart's Calculus 8edition, ex. 1.7.44). So those kind of students may want more clarity in the proofs.
 
IssacNewton said:
Thanks PeroK, I see your point. But there might be people visiting this thread who may want details. This is an introductory Calculus problem I am doing here (from Stewart's Calculus 8edition, ex. 1.7.44). So those kind of students may want more clarity in the proofs.

Excessive minor details can obscure a proof rather than clarify it.
 
I think taking lot of logical jumps in a proof can make it difficult to read too. I am just making sure that even beginners visiting this site will be able to understand this proof. Of course I am assuming the knowledge of basic logic (quantifiers, implication etc.)
 
IssacNewton said:
I think taking lot of logical jumps in a proof can make it difficult to read too. I am just making sure that even beginners visiting this site will be able to understand this proof. Of course I am assuming the knowledge of basic logic (quantifiers, implication etc.)

Why are you posting these if they are not your homework? If you know better, why ask our advice? What "beginners" are looking at your homework to learn analysis?
 
I am doing these problems myself. I just wanted feedback if they are correct. But I am also aware that people will visit this thread in the future and so wanted to make my proof as clear as possible.
 
IssacNewton said:
I am doing these problems myself. I just wanted feedback if they are correct. But I am also aware that people will visit this thread in the future and so wanted to make my proof as clear as possible.

Okay, but, believe it or not, it is harder to read with all those intermediate algebraic steps cluttering it up.
 
If the proof has too many logical jumps, I find it difficult to read. So you are right that I am cluttering it up but there is more clarity and some people who will visit this thread, who are beginners in analysis, will appreciate it I guess.
 

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