At Least p+1 p-Subgroups in Finite Group G

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SUMMARY

In the context of finite groups, if a group G has more than one subgroup of order p, it necessarily contains at least p+1 subgroups of order p. This conclusion is supported by the example of G being the direct sum of cyclic groups, specifically G = ℤ_p ⊕ ℤ_p. The proof is further reinforced under the assumption that G is abelian, utilizing Cauchy's theorem and the properties of subgroup intersections. The discussion also references Wielandt's proof related to the Sylow theorem, which establishes that the number of Sylow p subgroups is congruent to 1 modulo p.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of finite group theory
  • Familiarity with subgroup orders and Cauchy's theorem
  • Knowledge of abelian groups and their properties
  • Acquaintance with Sylow theorems and Wielandt's proof
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Sylow theorems in detail, focusing on their implications for subgroup counts
  • Explore Cauchy's theorem and its applications in group theory
  • Investigate the structure of abelian groups, particularly direct sums of cyclic groups
  • Review Wielandt's proof and its significance in the context of subgroup orders
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for mathematicians, particularly those specializing in group theory, algebraists, and students seeking to deepen their understanding of subgroup structures in finite groups.

johng1
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Let p be a prime and G a finite group. Suppose G has more than one subgroup of order p. Then G has at least p+1 subgroups of order p. Notice the bound is sharp as shown by

$$G=\mathbb{Z}_p\oplus\mathbb{Z}_p$$
 
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johng said:
Let p be a prime and G a finite group. Suppose G has more than one subgroup of order p. Then G has at least p+1 subgroups of order p. Notice the bound is sharp as shown by

$$G=\mathbb{Z}_p\oplus\mathbb{Z}_p$$
Okay. But what is your question? :P

EDIT:

I can do it if we additionally assume that $G$ is abelian.
Let $H_1,\ldots,H_k$ be all the subgroups of order $p$.
Let $S=\{x\in G:x^p=e\}$.
Then it can be seen that $S=\bigcup_{i=1}^k H_i$.
Also, $S$ is a subgroup of $G$ since $G$ is abelian.

Also, no member in $S$ has order other that $1$ or $p$. Thus, by Cauchy's theorem, $|S|=p^m$ for some integer $m$.

Also notice that $H_i$ and $H_j$ intersect only in $\{e\}$ whenever $i\neq j$.

This leads to $p^m=(p-1)k+1$, giving $k=1+p+\cdots+p^{m-1}$.

So $k=1, 1+p,1+p+p^2,\ldots$, depending on the value of $m$.

Since it is given that $k>1$, we have $k\geq p+1$.
 
Last edited:
Oops, my bad. My proof was a variation of Wielandt's proof of the Sylow theorem that says the number of Sylow p subgroups is congruent to 1 mod p. I had forgotten that this proof actually shows the number of p subgroups of a given order is congruent to 1 mod p. (It is assumed that p divides the order of G.) So the problem is trivial from this result. My apologies.

(I had intended to give a hint by suggesting a search for Wielandt's proof. This search results in the full statement of the theorem.)
 

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