Average value of components of angular momentum for a wave packet

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of angular momentum components for a wave packet, specifically questioning the evaluation of integrals that yield zero results, which seems inconsistent with classical mechanics expectations for a free particle.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the evaluation of integrals related to angular momentum components, with some questioning the validity of obtaining zero for the y component. There is mention of antisymmetry in the integrand affecting the results.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance on checking calculations and assumptions, particularly regarding the application of the product rule in derivatives. There is an acknowledgment of potential errors in the original approach, leading to a reevaluation of the results.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that classical mechanics suggests a free particle should have a nonzero angular momentum component, raising questions about the assumptions made in the integral evaluations.

Nelsonc
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Homework Statement
Given a wave packet as shown (see below), find the mean value of angular momentum components L_x, L_y, L_z with regard to point (a,0,-b) where a and b (the impact parameter) are nonzero
Relevant Equations
\frac{1}{\pi^{3/4} \sqrt{\sigma_x\sigma_y\sigma_z}}e^{-(x^2/2{\sigma_x}^2+y^2/2{\sigma_y}^2+z^2/2{\sigma_z}^2)}e^{i(p_0/\hbar)x}
I have typed up the main problem in latex (see photo below)
problem.png

It seems all such integrals evaluates to 0, but that is apparantly unreasonable for in classical mechanics such a free particle is with nonzero angular momentum with respect to y axis.
 
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Nelsonc said:
It seems all such integrals evaluates to 0, but that is apparantly unreasonable for in classical mechanics such a free particle is with nonzero angular momentum with respect to y axis.
You didn't show your work for the y and z components of angular momentum. You shouldn't get zero for the y component.
 
Thanks for the reminder, but I have already done so and it turns out they all goes to 0, so there must be something awry with my method. In particular, there seems always to be one spacial part of the integrand to be antisymmetric so that the whole integral goes to 0 (please refer to the image attached). Moreover, I know that classically a free particle moving in such fashion would have y angular momentum component being ##bp_0##

problem_2.png
 
In deriving equation (7), check your result for ##\large \frac{\partial \psi'}{\partial x}##. Did you use the product rule when taking the derivative of the product of the Gaussian function and the function ##e^{i(p_0/\hbar)x}##?
 
I see, thanks so much for catching that error! Now the calculation generates ##bp_0## as a result.
 
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