Basel problem, primes and π²/6

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between the Basel problem, the Riemann zeta function, and various formulas for calculating π. Participants explore whether different representations of these mathematical concepts can be considered equivalent or independent.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes the connection between the formula for π²/6 and the product over primes, suggesting they may represent the same underlying concept.
  • Another participant affirms the connection, mentioning the Riemann zeta function as a key element in understanding this relationship.
  • A follow-up question is raised regarding the independence of various formulas for π, questioning how many can be considered distinct.
  • A participant responds that, in a strict sense, no formulas for π are independent since one can derive others from a single definition of π.
  • Another participant reflects on the nature of equivalence, suggesting that rearranging formulas may demonstrate they describe the same calculation, thus questioning their independence.
  • A later reply clarifies that by "independent," they may mean "not the same," indicating a nuanced view of the relationship between the formulas.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the independence of formulas for π and whether they can be considered equivalent. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the criteria for independence and equivalence.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully defined what constitutes "independence" in the context of mathematical formulas, leading to ambiguity in the discussion.

Borek
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Bear with me, I know nothing.

Eons ego @micromass told me about this beautiful formula:

\frac {\pi^2} 6 = \prod\limits_{P}\left( 1-\frac 1 {p^2}\right) ^{-1}

where p are primes. Just a few minutes ago I have learned about the Basel problem and its solution:

\sum \limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac 1 {n^2} = \frac {\pi^2} 6

What struck me was that it is the same π²/6 in both cases.

Somehow I feel like it can be actually the same formula - just the one based on prime numbers takes into account fact that repetitions of prime factors cancel out when we try to sum the fractions finding the common denominator. Am I right, or am I completely off, as usual?
 
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Here comes a follow up question:

At first sight both formulas listed in my first post look differently, but it turns out it is actually the same thing. There are many formulas allowing calculation of π - or some value related to π. Do we know anything about how many of them are independent?
 
Borek said:
Here comes a follow up question:

At first sight both formulas listed in my first post look differently, but it turns out it is actually the same thing. There are many formulas allowing calculation of π - or some value related to π. Do we know anything about how many of them are independent?

What do you mean with independent? In a strict sense, none of the formulas are independent in the sense that we can accept one formula as the definition of ##\pi## and derive all other formulas from it.
 
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Good point, perhaps my thinking is flawed somehow.

In the above case we don't need to know that both formulas produce the same result to prove they are equivalent. It is enough to rearrange them, so they are both describing exactly the same calculation. In this sense I don't consider them to be independent.
 
Actually we started with stating "it is the same formula" (it can be obtained just by rearranging). So what if by "independent" I mean "not the same"?
 

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