interval from a to b [tex]\int[/tex] f(x) dx = interval from b to a (-)[tex]\int[/tex] f(x) dx Is this correct? Swapping the interval endpoints changes the sign of the integral? It seems like they should be equal. Thanks for the help. By the way, I saw this property here: http://www.sosmath.com/calculus/integ/integ02/integ02.html.