Binomial Distribution for a person walking in straight line

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the binomial distribution to model the probability of a person reaching a specific end location after a series of steps, where the steps can either be a larger positive move or a smaller negative move. The original poster questions whether this distribution can be applied under certain conditions regarding the probabilities of moving in each direction.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the feasibility of using the binomial distribution given the probabilities of moving in different directions. There are attempts to clarify the conditions under which the distribution applies, particularly concerning the distances moved and the probabilities associated with those moves. Some participants question the implications of specific values for the probabilities and how they affect the overall model.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations of the problem being explored. Some participants have offered guidance on how to approach the mathematical formulation, while others have raised questions about the assumptions and specific cases presented by the original poster. There is no explicit consensus yet on the correct application of the binomial distribution in this context.

Contextual Notes

There are constraints regarding the definitions of the probabilities and the distances moved, as well as the starting point for the calculations. The original poster's reference to specific values and scenarios has led to some confusion, which is being addressed through clarifying questions and suggestions.

CourtneyS
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Homework Statement


Can I measure the probability of a person being at a certain end location after n steps using the binomial distribution if,
probability student goes x=x+3 is 0 <= p <0.5 , x=x-1 is 0<= 0.5 p <1.

Homework Equations


x=x+3 is 0 <= p <0.5
x=x-1 is 0<= 0.5 p <1

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that I can do this for x=x+1 0<=p<0.5 and x=x-1 0.5<=p<1
And I know it doesn't work if it's position based, so for example at x=10, the probabilities changed.
But, can I do it if they move a larger distance in one direction than the other such as the example I have posted?
Thanks
 
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CourtneyS said:

Homework Statement


Can I measure the probability of a person being at a certain end location after n steps using the binomial distribution if,
probability student goes x=x+3 is 0 <= p <0.5 , x=x-1 is 0<= 0.5 p <1.

Homework Equations


x=x+3 is 0 <= p <0.5
x=x-1 is 0<= 0.5 p <1

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that I can do this for x=x+1 0<=p<0.5 and x=x-1 0.5<=p<1
And I know it doesn't work if it's position based, so for example at x=10, the probabilities changed.
But, can I do it if they move a larger distance in one direction than the other such as the example I have posted?
Thanks

I think you meant to say that the moves are ##x \to x+3## w.p. ##p## and ##x \to x-1## w.p. ##q = 1-p##; here ##0 < p < 1/2##. (The case ##p=0## should be excluded, because it is trivial---there is no randomness at all.)

After ##n## steps, if the student takes ##k## steps to the right and ##(n-k)## steps to the left, how far to the right has he/she moved? (Of course, a negative distance to the right is a positive distance to the left.)

I did not understand at all the rest of your post, where you talk about x = 10 and larger distances, etc.
 
Last edited:
Can I say that probability for any given end point x, the probability of ending up there is :
probability = {factorial(n)/(factorial((n+(x+3))/2)*factorial((n-(x-1))/2))}*{p^(1/2(n+(x+3)) * q^(1/2(n+(x-1)))}
Where p = probability of moving x+3 and q = 1-p
 
CourtneyS said:
Can I say that probability for any given end point x, the probability of ending up there is :
probability = {factorial(n)/(factorial((n+(x+3))/2)*factorial((n-(x-1))/2))}*{p^(1/2(n+(x+3)) * q^(1/2(n+(x-1)))}
Where p = probability of moving x+3 and q = 1-p

That is not what I get. Just solve for ##k## in terms of ##x## and substitute that into the binomial expression, but do it carefully. (Of course, I assume the starting point is ##x = 0##).

BTW: it is normal in probability to use shorthand notation for binomial coefficients: instead of
\frac{a!}{b! (a-b)!}
we usually write
\binom{a}{b} \;\;\rm{or} \;\; C(a,b) \;\; \rm{or} \;\; {}_aC_b
Of course, when we actually want to compute the binomial coefficient, we fall back on the original formula in terms of factorials. However, do what makes you most comfortable; I am just offering advice that you can take or leave.
 

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