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A Bosonization question

  1. Mar 17, 2016 #1
    Hi! Im sttrugled with a question concerning the bosonization technique. When you express the fermionic operator as a vertex operator depending on the bose field, for interacting systems, the scaling of the operator is different of 1/2. That is, for non-interacting electrons, d=1/2. When interactions are switched on this changes and, can we still consider the operator to be a "fermionic" one, or is it, instead an "anyon"?

    Finally, in terms of calculation of correlation functions, can we compute the single particle Green's function from this picture? (In principle, Wick's theorem doesnt hold)

    Thank you!
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 22, 2016 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
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