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BRS: proper distance, underdensities, warp drives, &c., ad nauseum
In ""Proper distance" in GR"
Right, and in this case one can describe an unambiguous "proper distance in the large", because of a remarkable property of Minkowski spacetime: through each pair of events there is precisely one geodesic. There are a handful of other homogeneous (transitive isometry group) spacetimes with the same property --- they are often are often used as cosmological models, but that's not really relevant here--- such as de Sitter lambda vacuum.
A good exercise is to identify these spacetimes and to work out the "proper distance in the large" formula, analogous to the Pythagoras-Minkowski formula
<br /> d( (t,x,y,z), (t',x',y',z')) = -(t-t1)^2 + (x-x1)^2 + (y-y1)^2 + (z-z1)^2<br />
In a more general spacetime, there will be multiple geodesics between two "non-nearby" events, so there is no hope of a "proper-distance in the large" formula. However, if one clearly has in mind a specific geodesic curve, one can integrate ds along the curve and call that proper distance. Actually, one normally says "proper time" if the curve is everywhere timelike and "proper distance" if the curve is everywhere spacelike. Curves which are timelike here and spacelike there are not often considered! And for null curves, of course, "proper distance" makes no sense.
In the case of something like an FRW model, this is the idea behind integrating along a spacelike geodesic which lies entirely in some "constant time slice". (Note that in a generic hyperslice will bend away from a generic spacelike geodesic which is tangent to the slice at some event on the slice.)
I don't think there's anything to be gained by arguing over whether some definition of "spatial distance in the large" is the "right" definition. There are multiple distinct operationally significant definitions possible, and that's all there is to it. OTH, if you want to discuss in coordinate-free, geometrically meaningful terms the relative motion of a family of observers whose world lines are given by some timelike congruence, then the decomposition of the associated timelike unit vector field into acceleration vector, expansion tensor, and vorticity vector, is just what you want.
But there are many ways of continuing a curve given just one tangent vector, so there is too much multiplicity here to be really useful, I think. OTH, the decomposition is unique, but of course dependent upon choice of congruence! Also, don't forget that only an irrotational congruence admits a family of hyperslices everywhere orthogonal to the world lines--- for a congruence with vorticity, no "constant time slices" exist--- oh, I see now, George already said this:
Wish I'd being paying attention, because I demur: in a generic situation, there will be no "hypersurface of proper time" because the congruence has vorticity. However, the decomposition always makes sense and is always informative. But in the literature, I'd say that the general usage is that "proper distance" (or "proper time" for timelike curves) is the integral of ds along a everywhere spacelike (everywhere timelike) geodesic, bearing in mind that there may be more than one such geodesic between two events, and that most spatial hyperslices will bend away from a spacelike geodesic tangent to some event on the hyperslice, and that such a slice need not have any nice relation to any timelike congruence which may be physically interesting.
I think pervect was thinking of spacelike geodesics between two nearby events, but in general there will be multiple geodesics between two events (e.g. on an ordinary two-sphere) giving different lengths between the two points. Also, in the sequel of the thread, some posters appear to be confused about the variational principle behind the notion of geodesics: it says that when we have a geodesic curve between two events, and make a small variation (small to first order), the integral of ds is consant to second order. It doesn't say whether this integral increases or decreases. In flat spacetime, it is true that for a timelike geodesic, it will decrease, and for a spacelike geodesic, it will increase. But the point is that for a non-geodesic curve, a first order variation will result in a first order change in the integral of ds. So the variational principle says that the integral of ds is stationary, not that it is an extremum.
In Riemannian geometry, there is quite a bit of theory on inferring properties of geodesics from properties of the curvature tensor, and vice versa. Most of this depends on positive definiteness. There is also considerable theory relating properties of geodesics to properties of curvature tensor in Lorentzian geometry, but it has a different flavor since no positive definiteness. See respectively Berger, A Panorama of Riemannian Geometry and Stephani et al., Exact Solutions of Einstein's Field Equations.
In "Opposite side" of GR"
the OP is struggling to discuss something like this: a dust solution which has a region of underdensity (in a spatial hyperslice, not neccessarily related to the world lines of the dust particles, this region should be compact), possibly spherically symmetric although that is not generic, and outside agrees locally with some FRW dust solution. This exactly the situation discussed at length elsewhere in the BRS!
In
the OP is caught up in the issue of multiple distinct operatationally distinct notions of "distance in the large", hence "velocity in the large". This is why warp drive metrics do not contradict the principle that at each event the tangent space is Lorentzian. But a large body of work since Alcubierre's papers shows that warp drives are almost certainly not physically realizable, and moreoever, if they were, so would be "time machines" and other outlandish devices. There is no completely solid disproof, and you can never tell what the future might bring, but right now it seems that there is no point on say spending large sums on looking for ways to make warp drives, because right now theory suggests strongly that it simply cannot be done.
In ""Proper distance" in GR"
Code:
www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=437895
pervect said:I am aware of two meanings of the term "proper distance" in GR. The first is when you have points in flat space-time, or space-time that's locally "flat enough", in which case it is defined as it is in SR, as the Lorentz interval between the two points. This usage of the term implies that one is considering short distances, or is working in a flat space-time.
Right, and in this case one can describe an unambiguous "proper distance in the large", because of a remarkable property of Minkowski spacetime: through each pair of events there is precisely one geodesic. There are a handful of other homogeneous (transitive isometry group) spacetimes with the same property --- they are often are often used as cosmological models, but that's not really relevant here--- such as de Sitter lambda vacuum.
A good exercise is to identify these spacetimes and to work out the "proper distance in the large" formula, analogous to the Pythagoras-Minkowski formula
<br /> d( (t,x,y,z), (t',x',y',z')) = -(t-t1)^2 + (x-x1)^2 + (y-y1)^2 + (z-z1)^2<br />
In a more general spacetime, there will be multiple geodesics between two "non-nearby" events, so there is no hope of a "proper-distance in the large" formula. However, if one clearly has in mind a specific geodesic curve, one can integrate ds along the curve and call that proper distance. Actually, one normally says "proper time" if the curve is everywhere timelike and "proper distance" if the curve is everywhere spacelike. Curves which are timelike here and spacelike there are not often considered! And for null curves, of course, "proper distance" makes no sense.
In the case of something like an FRW model, this is the idea behind integrating along a spacelike geodesic which lies entirely in some "constant time slice". (Note that in a generic hyperslice will bend away from a generic spacelike geodesic which is tangent to the slice at some event on the slice.)
I don't think there's anything to be gained by arguing over whether some definition of "spatial distance in the large" is the "right" definition. There are multiple distinct operationally significant definitions possible, and that's all there is to it. OTH, if you want to discuss in coordinate-free, geometrically meaningful terms the relative motion of a family of observers whose world lines are given by some timelike congruence, then the decomposition of the associated timelike unit vector field into acceleration vector, expansion tensor, and vorticity vector, is just what you want.
George Jones said:Suppose a congruence of timelike worldlines of "fundamental" observers is picked out by phyics, symmetry, etc. Consider spacelike curve that intersects each worldlne in the timelike congruence orthogonally, and that has unit length tangent vector. Proper distance for the congruence is given by the curve parameter along such a spacelike curve. Sometimes these spacelike curve are geodesics, and sometimes they are not.
But there are many ways of continuing a curve given just one tangent vector, so there is too much multiplicity here to be really useful, I think. OTH, the decomposition is unique, but of course dependent upon choice of congruence! Also, don't forget that only an irrotational congruence admits a family of hyperslices everywhere orthogonal to the world lines--- for a congruence with vorticity, no "constant time slices" exist--- oh, I see now, George already said this:
George Jones said:A congruence is hypersurface orthogonal if and only if the vorticity of the congruence vanishes.
pervect said:I believe there is a general consensus, then, that the term "proper length" in GR needs additional specification besides two points: the curve along which the length may be specified, or the hypersurface of "constant time" in which the curve lies might be specified as an alternative, or indirect means might be used to specify the hypersurface (for instance it being orthogonal to a particular preferred family of observers).
Wish I'd being paying attention, because I demur: in a generic situation, there will be no "hypersurface of proper time" because the congruence has vorticity. However, the decomposition always makes sense and is always informative. But in the literature, I'd say that the general usage is that "proper distance" (or "proper time" for timelike curves) is the integral of ds along a everywhere spacelike (everywhere timelike) geodesic, bearing in mind that there may be more than one such geodesic between two events, and that most spatial hyperslices will bend away from a spacelike geodesic tangent to some event on the hyperslice, and that such a slice need not have any nice relation to any timelike congruence which may be physically interesting.
pervect said:the curve is specified implicitly as (informally) "the shortest curve connecting the two points" or more formally the distance is specified as the greatest lower bound of all curves connecting the two points.
I think pervect was thinking of spacelike geodesics between two nearby events, but in general there will be multiple geodesics between two events (e.g. on an ordinary two-sphere) giving different lengths between the two points. Also, in the sequel of the thread, some posters appear to be confused about the variational principle behind the notion of geodesics: it says that when we have a geodesic curve between two events, and make a small variation (small to first order), the integral of ds is consant to second order. It doesn't say whether this integral increases or decreases. In flat spacetime, it is true that for a timelike geodesic, it will decrease, and for a spacelike geodesic, it will increase. But the point is that for a non-geodesic curve, a first order variation will result in a first order change in the integral of ds. So the variational principle says that the integral of ds is stationary, not that it is an extremum.
TrickyDicky said:I thought for a specific spacetime with a specific curvature, there could only be one geodesic that precisely defines the shortest path. And that would also be the most "natural" definition of proper distance.
In Riemannian geometry, there is quite a bit of theory on inferring properties of geodesics from properties of the curvature tensor, and vice versa. Most of this depends on positive definiteness. There is also considerable theory relating properties of geodesics to properties of curvature tensor in Lorentzian geometry, but it has a different flavor since no positive definiteness. See respectively Berger, A Panorama of Riemannian Geometry and Stephani et al., Exact Solutions of Einstein's Field Equations.
In "Opposite side" of GR"
Code:
www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=437613
In
Code:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=438007