rohanprabhu
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I read this on cut-the-knot.org:
How is this a contradiction? If p^2 = 2q^2 just says that p^2 is even, it doesn't say that 'p' is even. It is a very obvious mistake. So.. is this a stupidity on their part or something that i may have missed [or a stupidity] on my part..
I generally wouldn't have posted this here.. but since cut-the-not.org has quality articles posted.. i would like to rethink this problem before concluding that they made a mistake.
thanks
The premise p^2 = 2q^2 tells us that p is even. Assuming p and q mutually prime, q is bound to be odd. However, the square of an even number is divisible by 4, which leads us to conclude that q is even. A contradiction.
How is this a contradiction? If p^2 = 2q^2 just says that p^2 is even, it doesn't say that 'p' is even. It is a very obvious mistake. So.. is this a stupidity on their part or something that i may have missed [or a stupidity] on my part..
I generally wouldn't have posted this here.. but since cut-the-not.org has quality articles posted.. i would like to rethink this problem before concluding that they made a mistake.
thanks