Calculating how magnetic field strength decreases with distance

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downtownjapan
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Hi everyone,

I am trying to calculate the decrease in magnetic field strength over distance, using a formula I found on this thread https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=522223

The formula given was 1/r^3, where r is the distance from the source.
The same thread says the formula "gives you the magnetic field in Tesla, if you plug in the current in Ampere, the length in meter"

I want to calculate how the field of an electromagnet decreases 0.5 mm directly above, at a 90 degree angle, the center of the one end of the iron core of the electromagnet (Point A shown in the image below).

BUT I must be doing something very, very wrong following this formula because the numbers I get don't make sense to me. I have clearly made a mistake applying the formula and I am wondering if someone could tell me where I have gone wrong.

I am trying to calculate how a field of 0.005 Tesla will decrease at a distance of 0.0005 meters away.

I have done the following calculation
0.005T/0.0005^3 meters, which gives me the number
0.005/0.0005^3 = 40,000,000
I have assumed the unit of the answer (when calculated correctly!) will be in Tesla.
Setting aside the obvious implausibility of a 40 million Tesla magnetic field, the result is always a higher number than I started with (0.005T), but I am trying to calculate how the field strength decreases.
Obviously I have gone horribly wrong, and I have a feeling I am making a very basic mistake somewhere with either the calculations and/or the understanding of the formula.
If any kind-hearted charitable soul out there wants to tell me how this poor fool has gone wrong, I would be very grateful!
 

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dtj: I'm sorry that the only help I can give on this question is of a negative sort.

• the [itex]\frac{1}{r^3}[/itex] law does not apply here. It only applies if you are a long way away from a magnet compared with the magnet's length. [Assuming the magnet behaves as a dipole.]

[That's not why your answer was so huge; I'm afraid you were not using the [itex]\frac{1}{r^3}[/itex] law correctly - but it doesn't seem worth sorting this out, since the law doesn't apply anyway!]

• You start with a field of 0.005 T, but you don't say where the field has this value.

• This sort of calculation is generally not easy. I hope someone who knows more will jump in...
 
0.5 mm is close enough to the end of the magnet to treat the end like a uniformly charged disk.
The B field on its axis is the same as that of the E field on the end of a uniformly charged disk,
which is given in textbooks.
The surface charge on the disk (in gaussian units) is 4pi M.
 
And how do we find M? Let's suppose that we have a solenoid much longer than its diameter, with an iron core extending to the ends of the coil itself.