I think this may lead to a correct answer:
Notice that for [tex]n > 2[/tex]
[tex]\int_0^\pi \csc^2(\frac{x}{n})-1dx = n\tan (\frac{\pi}{n})-\pi[/tex]
and that,
[tex]\int_{0}^{2\pi}\cos(\frac{x}{n})-1dx=n\sin(\frac{2\pi}{n})-2\pi[/tex].
Finally, I am pretty sure that the integrands in the above converge uniformly as [tex]n\rightarrow\infty[/tex], although you should check it.
Therefore,
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{2\pi}\cos(\frac{x}{n})-1dx = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \cos(\frac{x}{n})-1dx = \int_{0}^{2\pi} 0 dx = 0[/tex]Hope that helps.