Calculating Probability with Normal Approximation

  • Thread starter Thread starter lilyungn
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Probability
Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the probability of 518 or fewer drivers wearing seat belts from a sample of 700, given that 80% of drivers wear seat belts. Participants emphasize using the normal approximation to the binomial distribution, where the mean is calculated as n * p and variance as n * p * (1 - p). One user provides an extremely large numerical probability calculation but is questioned about its validity since probabilities should range between 0 and 1. The thread highlights the importance of showing one's work and understanding in solving statistical problems, rather than simply asking for answers. Overall, the conversation revolves around applying statistical principles correctly to solve the given problem.
lilyungn
Messages
9
Reaction score
0
Hi all I'm currently taking Statistics 1 and I'm stuck on a homework problem that I've been trying to figure out for a while...hopefully one of you guys can enlighten me on how to do it..heres the question:

Transportation officials tell us that 80% of drivers wear seat belts while driving. What is the probability of observing 518 or fewer drivers wearing seat belts in a sample of 700 drivers?

Hint: Use normal distribution to approximate the binomial distribution

Any help will be greatly appreciated. Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The normal approximation of the binomial distribution has mean n * p and variance n * p * (1 - p). In your example n = 700 and p = 0.8.

I calculate the exact probability as
Code:
27215033424606239489951580591428932253089201021148168958765691731392094513257400149512461174994101101893879349950817724535023320833098115143452605318902844562357900521627169600482502350655645510044817056094897193166242140544070444191441905644096259918364809861980951251235754139967622866482769375805893409967413796426281723416461645206238828172038546224013601381995986790697562819660604903531492876045502982090073701576428830644538188684724158694295977900811634082990023633233789421341/380218313259031964703014481167020621852974241274703806488349211513170849855494440711440299410524372640522125900659637734955652488757724700708924916770505595637569416206346918582471539076959056068435223651008041554876432039792771230305103084765331596853800084507271724280140484161410403670670196458543283896996507022028449859411384981297711080778428012558385332383706122652531298594333598103700679951981973698960512606011735240635218234741615222116624395187756135783274658024311065673828125
You can use this to check yourself, if you'd like. :-p
 
I don't understand how you did it, can you show the work? thanks
 
lilyungn said:
I don't understand how you did it, can you show the work? thanks
No, we cannot; that is cheating, strictly against site policy, and not very effective in helping you learn anyways.

What we will do is help you solve the problem, but we can't do that if you only post the question, and nothing about your own thoughts, work, and understanding about it.
 
CRGreathouse said:
The normal approximation of the binomial distribution has mean n * p and variance n * p * (1 - p). In your example n = 700 and p = 0.8.

I calculate the exact probability as
Code:
27215033424606239489951580591428932253089201021148168958765691731392094513257400149512461174994101101893879349950817724535023320833098115143452605318902844562357900521627169600482502350655645510044817056094897193166242140544070444191441905644096259918364809861980951251235754139967622866482769375805893409967413796426281723416461645206238828172038546224013601381995986790697562819660604903531492876045502982090073701576428830644538188684724158694295977900811634082990023633233789421341/380218313259031964703014481167020621852974241274703806488349211513170849855494440711440299410524372640522125900659637734955652488757724700708924916770505595637569416206346918582471539076959056068435223651008041554876432039792771230305103084765331596853800084507271724280140484161410403670670196458543283896996507022028449859411384981297711080778428012558385332383706122652531298594333598103700679951981973698960512606011735240635218234741615222116624395187756135783274658024311065673828125
You can use this to check yourself, if you'd like. :-p

Seems a little large for a probability, being that they should be in the interval [0, 1].
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 28 ·
Replies
28
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
8K