MHB Calculating the effect of an operator on an arbitrary state

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The discussion centers on calculating the effect of the operator $\widehat{R} \equiv \Pi_i (\widehat{Q} - q_i)$ on an arbitrary state $\Psi$, given that $\widehat{Q} \varphi_i = q_i \varphi_i$. Participants explore whether the result is zero, with one contributor suggesting that the commuting nature of the operators could simplify the calculations. The conversation reveals difficulties in manipulating the indices and performing the necessary product to demonstrate the result. Ultimately, the computation leads to a summation that hinges on the convergence of the series, raising questions about whether the final result indeed equals zero. The thread highlights the complexities involved in abstract quantum operator calculations.
Fantini
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Hello. I need help with the following:

Suppose a basis set of states $\varphi_i$. Calculate the effect of the operator $\widehat{R} \equiv \Pi_i \left( \widehat{Q} -q_i \right)$ on an arbitrary state $\Psi$, assuming that the equation $\widehat{Q} \varphi_i = q_i \varphi_i$ is satisfied.

I'm convinced that the answer is zero, but I don't know how to manipulate the indices to reflect that. I've calculated explicitly the cases for $n=2$ and $n=3$.
 
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Hi Fantini,

It may help to note that all of the operators $Q-q_{i}$ commute; i.e.
$$(Q-q_{i})(Q-q_{j})=(Q-q_{j})(Q-q_{i})$$
If we use this observation, I think we can avoid dealing with messy indices.

Does this help move things in the right direction? Let me know if anything is unclear/not quite right.
 
Hi GJA. This doesn't really point me somewhere. I'm still lost at how to do the abstract computation. I'm conjecturing the result holds only for a finite index.
 
You can write
$$\Psi=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \varphi_j,$$
since $\{\varphi_j\}$ is a basis. Then compute
$$\hat{R} \, \Psi=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q}-q_i) \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \varphi_j.$$
Can you continue?
 
No, I can't. I tried that, but I don't know how to actually perform the product/distribution to show that it equals zero.
 
Ok, so we get
\begin{align*}
\hat{R} \, \Psi&=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q}-q_i) \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \varphi_j \\
&= \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q}-q_i)\varphi_j \\
&=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q} \,\varphi_j-q_i \, \varphi_j) \\
&=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(q_j \,\varphi_j-q_i \, \varphi_j) \\
&=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(q_j -q_i ) \, a_j \, \varphi_j.
\end{align*}
This all assumes the necessary convergence so that we can switch the order of operations. Does the result look like zero?
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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