Calculating the Probability of a Royal Flush in Texas Holdem with 9 Players

  • Thread starter Thread starter Zythyr
  • Start date Start date
Zythyr
Messages
32
Reaction score
0
How would I calculate the probability of getting a royal flush in a game of Texas Holdem with 9 players sitting on a table playing not against each other (without betting), but with the goal of producing a royal flush on the table. It doesn't matter which player gets the royal flush. The goal of the whole table is accomplished when a royal flush is attained.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I think you will have to consider a lot of different cases separately. Only one of them is really easy, so I'll just do that one. The probability that the board will be a royal when we have no information about the hole cards is

\frac{20}{52}\cdot\frac{4}{51}\cdot\frac{3}{50}\cdot\frac{2}{49}\cdot\frac{1}{48}=\frac{1}{649740}
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top