Calculating the Speed and Distance of Charged Particles | Homework Help

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A charge of 3.93 μC is fixed at the origin while a second charge of the same magnitude is released from rest at (1.15 m, 0.550 m). The speed of the second charge at infinity is calculated to be 8.10 m/s. The discussion focuses on finding the distance from the origin where the second charge reaches half this speed. The correct approach involves setting the potential energy difference equal to half the kinetic energy at the desired speed. The participant successfully solved the problem just before the deadline, achieving a perfect score in the class.
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hey here is one i am kinda stuck on, the homework is due in a few hours and its my last problem. (any help would be appreciated!)
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A charge of 3.93 μC is held fixed at the origin. A second charge of 3.93 μC is released from rest at the position (1.15 m, 0.550 m).

Enter scientific notation as 1.23E4.

(a)
If the mass of the second charge is 3.33 g, what is its speed when it moves infinitely far from the origin?
----i found this number to be 8.10 m/s which is correct



(b) (so this is the part i need help with...)
At what distance from the origin does the 3.93-μC charge attain half the speed it will have at infinity?

im probably just having a brain fart but i can't seem to put it together...
 
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If you put the first problem together ok you set the potential energy difference between r=1.15m and r=infinity equal to (1/2)mv^2. Right? Now set the difference between 1.15m and an unknown r equal to (1/2)m(v/2)^2 and solve for r. Right?
 
Last edited:
for the first part i found the radius to the second charge from Pythagorean therm and used

k(qq)/r = (1/2)mv^2 and solved for v

so I am not understanding what youre saying to do because that is not how i did the first part...

if you could please type out the equations you are talking about so i can see them...

thanks
 
Ok. Yes, the radius for the first part is not 1.15m. Got it. Ok, so let r0 be the radius from the first part and v the velocity from the first part. Then solve k(qq)*(1/r0-1/r)=(1/2)m(v/2)^2. It's exactly the same idea.
 
nice thanks that was exactly it i just wasnt seeing the front part of that equation...

i submitted the correct answer with 30 seconds to spare so i have a 100% in that class now...woot

thanks
 
cajunchrisbu said:
nice thanks that was exactly it i just wasnt seeing the front part of that equation...

i submitted the correct answer with 30 seconds to spare so i have a 100% in that class now...woot

thanks

Congratulations! But it's the same thing you already did right? Just a potential difference.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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