Calculating Work Done by a Variable Force on a Particle-Like Object

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves calculating the work done by a variable force acting on a particle-like object, with the position described as a function of time. The context is rooted in classical mechanics, specifically focusing on the relationship between force, mass, and motion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the work done using the integral of force, expressing it in terms of mass and acceleration. They explore the implications of substituting variables in the integral, particularly how to handle the relationship between time and displacement.

Discussion Status

Participants are engaging with the original poster's approach, confirming the validity of the change of variable theorem and discussing the substitution of variables in the integral. There is a collaborative exploration of the mathematical steps involved, with some guidance offered on how to proceed with the integration.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the complexity of integrating with respect to time while dealing with a variable force, indicating potential challenges in the setup of the integral. The original poster's concern about the integration process reflects common difficulties encountered in similar problems.

mbrmbrg
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A single force acts on a 7.0 kg particle-like object in such a way that the position of the object as a function of time is given by x = 3.0t - 4.0t^2 + 1.0t^3, with x in meters and t in seconds. Find the work done on the object by the force from t = 0 to t = 3.0 s.


I want to use the equation [tex]W = \int F(x)dx = \int madx[/tex]
To find acceleration, I took the second derivative of the position function:
[tex]x(t) = 3t-4t^2+t^3[/tex]
[tex]v=x'(t) = 3-8t+3t^2[/tex]
[tex]a=x''(t) = -8+6t[/tex]

When I go to plug values into my work integral, I get [tex]W=\int m(6t-8)dx[/tex]
I would then take mass out of the integral, but having t and dx in the integral is evil. Do I say that dx=x'(t) and so substitute my velocity function (with dt tacked onto the end) for dx?
 
Last edited:
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"Yes". The change of variable theorem states that,

[tex]\int_{x(t=0)}^{x(t=3)}F(x)dx = \int_0^3F(x(t))\dot{x}(t)dt[/tex]

But as you cleverly noted, F(x(t))=ma(t).
 
mbrmbrg said:
A single force acts on a 7.0 kg particle-like object in such a way that the position of the object as a function of time is given by x = 3.0t - 4.0t^2 + 1.0t^3, with x in meters and t in seconds. Find the work done on the object by the force from t = 0 to t = 3.0 s.


I want to use the equation [tex]W = \int F(x)dx = \int madx[/tex]
To find acceleration, I took the second derivative of the position function:
[tex]x(t) = 3t-4t^2+t^3[/tex]
[tex]v=x'(t) = 3-8t+3t^2[/tex]
[tex]a=x''(t) = -8+6t[/tex]

When I go to plug values into my work integral, I get [tex]W=\int m(6t-8)dx[/tex]
I would then take mass out of the integral, but having t and dx in the integral is evil. Do I say that dx=x'(t) and so substitute my velocity function (with dt tacked onto the end) for dx?
That looks like it will take away the evil and give you the correct solution!l
 
Thank you very kindly!
 

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