Calculation in proof of Poincare's Lemma

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the chain rule in the context of proving Poincaré's lemma, specifically regarding the differentiation of a (0, p) tensor in a star-shaped region. Participants express confusion about the treatment of the variable \( t \) in the differentiation process and its implications for the chain rule.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why the book applies the chain rule as \( \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}(tx^h) = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l}\frac{\partial(tx^l)}{\partial x^j} \) instead of using \( \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial (tx^l)}\frac{\partial(tx^l)}{\partial x^j} \), noting the absence of \( t \) in the denominator.
  • Another participant references a related result from lecture slides involving the differentiation of a function \( g(t) = f(tx, ty) \) and expresses confusion about the notation \( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} \) instead of \( \frac{\partial f}{\partial (tx)} \).
  • A participant expresses a desire to assist but acknowledges that the problem is beyond their understanding.
  • One participant provides the source of their textbook and a link to the lecture slides for further reference.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not appear to reach a consensus on the application of the chain rule or the treatment of the variable \( t \). Multiple viewpoints and confusions remain unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight potential misunderstandings regarding the application of the chain rule in the context of tensor calculus, particularly in relation to the treatment of variables and notation. There is an indication of missing clarity on how to properly apply the chain rule in this specific mathematical context.

oblixps
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A_{j_{1}...j_{p}} is a (0, p) tensor defined in a star shaped region of some point P where the coordinates x^1 = ... = x^n = 0.

in the course of proving Poincare's lemma my book does the following: \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}(tx^h) = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l}\frac{\partial(tx^l)}{\partial x^j} = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l} t\delta^{l}_{j} = t\frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l}.

what I'm confused about is why didn't the book do \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}(tx^h) = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial (tx^l)}\frac{\partial(tx^l)}{\partial x^j}.

what happened to that t in the "denominator" of the first fraction in the chain rule?
 
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i was looking around on google and i ran across this related result in some lecture slides.

letting g(t) = f(tx, ty) and using the chain rule:

g'(t) = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x})(tx, ty) * x + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial y})(tx, ty) * y.

once again i am confused on why they wrote \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} instead of \frac{\partial f}{\partial (tx)}.
 
At the risk of getting an infraction from one of our moderators, I'm going to bump this thread as the OP has waited a bit and posted more info yet hasn't been helped. If possible I'd help myself but alas, this problem is out of my league.
 
Hi oblixps, :)

oblixps said:
A_{j_{1}...j_{p}} is a (0, p) tensor defined in a star shaped region of some point P where the coordinates x^1 = ... = x^n = 0.

in the course of proving Poincare's lemma my book does the following: \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}(tx^h) = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l}\frac{\partial(tx^l)}{\partial x^j} = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l} t\delta^{l}_{j} = t\frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial x^l}.

what I'm confused about is why didn't the book do \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}(tx^h) = \frac{\partial A_{j_{1}...j_{p}}}{\partial (tx^l)}\frac{\partial(tx^l)}{\partial x^j}.

what happened to that t in the "denominator" of the first fraction in the chain rule?

Can you please tell me what your book is...

oblixps said:
i was looking around on google and i ran across this related result in some lecture slides.

letting g(t) = f(tx, ty) and using the chain rule:

g'(t) = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x})(tx, ty) * x + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial y})(tx, ty) * y.

once again i am confused on why they wrote \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} instead of \frac{\partial f}{\partial (tx)}.

... and the web-link where you found the above statement.

Kind Regards,
Sudharaka.
 
thanks for the reply.

the book I'm using is "Tensors, Differential Forms, and Variational Principles" by Lovelock and Rund. Just in case you have access to a copy, it should be on page 143.

and the lecture slides I referred to are from: http://www.math.upenn.edu/~ryblair/Math 600/papers/Lec1.pdf

the result i posted is on slide 22 and is what starts off one of the proofs.
 

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