pellman
- 683
- 6
Given an operator \hat{Q} (in the Schrodinger picture) in non-relativistic quantum mechanics and a state |\psi(t)\rangle such that
\hat{Q} |\psi(t)\rangle=q(t)|\psi(t)\rangle
where q(t) is explicitly time-dependent, can we properly say that |\psi(t)\rangle is an eigenstate of Q with a time-dependent eigenvalue. That is, |\psi(t)\rangle remains a eigenstate of Q for all times but its eigenvalue is different depending on when you measure it?
For example, suppose we had a wave function of the form
\psi(x,t)\propto e^{ixg(t)+h(t))}
then applying the momentum operator we find
-i\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\psi(x,t)=g(t)\psi(x,t).
Would you say that \psi(x,t) is momentum eigenstate with momentum = g(t)?
\hat{Q} |\psi(t)\rangle=q(t)|\psi(t)\rangle
where q(t) is explicitly time-dependent, can we properly say that |\psi(t)\rangle is an eigenstate of Q with a time-dependent eigenvalue. That is, |\psi(t)\rangle remains a eigenstate of Q for all times but its eigenvalue is different depending on when you measure it?
For example, suppose we had a wave function of the form
\psi(x,t)\propto e^{ixg(t)+h(t))}
then applying the momentum operator we find
-i\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\psi(x,t)=g(t)\psi(x,t).
Would you say that \psi(x,t) is momentum eigenstate with momentum = g(t)?
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