Can anybody explain this to me?

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The discussion centers on a mathematical exercise from a Berkeley course, specifically problem 28.8 b). Participants debate the limit of the sequence given that converges to x. The conclusion drawn is that if consists of rational numbers, the limit is zero, while if consists of irrational numbers, the limit is x^2. The only scenario where both limits agree is when x equals zero, highlighting the nuances of continuity in this context.

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In this link:


http://people.ischool.berkeley.edu/~johnsonb/Welcome_files/104/104hw9sum06.pdf

For number 28.8 b),

...for case 1, they say that x is the limit for the sequnce <x_n>, right? So doesn't the limit for the sequence <f(x_n)> need to be x^2? Why does the answer say that it must be zero?
 
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That would be true for f continuous, which the exercise is proving to be false. That approach seems a bit complicated.
if x_n is always rational
lim <f(x_n)>=0
if x_n is never rational
lim <f(x_n)>=x^2

they agree if and only if x=0
 
Hi Artusartos! :smile:
Artusartos said:
For number 28.8 b),

...for case 1, they say that x is the limit for the sequnce <x_n>, right? So doesn't the limit for the sequence <f(x_n)> need to be x^2? Why does the answer say that it must be zero?

No, it says limn->∞xn2 = x2 0. :wink:

(not equal to)
 

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