Can being out of phase with time increase the impact of objects?

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I have heard of a term being thrown around called 'being out of phase'.

As I understand this, if you were out of phase with normal time. Say, for instance time for you went faster than others. You would therefore move faster than other objects.

What I cannot understand is, if you would take a ball and throw it, it would move much fast than the 'normal' time. Would this ball (if it did not vapourise) be able to create more damage to other objects, because of its high speed? Or would the ball interact with other objects with the same force as a ball under normal time.

Mr Mango
 
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THe term "out of phase" is referring to wave motion. It is the idea that two waves can be traveling in the same medium, and they could meet, but where one is at the high point of the wave, the other is at the low point. The two waves are out of phase and they cancel each other out (but just at that point and for just that moment in time).

I am not aware of "out of phase" being used in the way you have described. But even if you were "out of phase" with normal time, it would not follow, necessarily that the flow of time be faster or slower.
 
If I can find the article, I will post the url.

I am very new to this sort of area, but interested. If could also be that I have not explained myself correctly.

Thanks for the reply.
 


To influence and alter the time phase of an object would be to control time itself for that object. Some research and actual exeriments on this can be found in a lab near Manhattan, call "Project Dark Star". They claim to have been able to slow the rate of time of an object (i.e. clocks, plants, etc..), and even increase the rate of time of those objects, in relation to our (outsiders) time rate, but have been unsuccessfull in actually stopping or reversing time, only slowing it down and speeding it up.

Hope this helps.
 
Having read this thread, I am a little confused. Perhaps you can help:

I thought that "time" is a "relationship" as opposed to a force or other influencing energy. In other words, I have always felt that time only exists if there is a change in the object with respect to a previous state, or, there is a change of the object with relationship to something else.
If nothing changed, internally or externally(I know this is not possible) would not the notion of time be meaningless?
 
Originally posted by pallidin
If nothing changed, internally or externally(I know this is not possible) would not the notion of time be meaningless?

If an object remained completely unchanged over time, then time would by defenition by irrelevant to it. Of course everything around it would still be changed by time.


On topic: I always thought Out of Phase as being slightly forward or behind in the time stream as the rest of environment. Kind of like a car following behind you on the road. If you were unable to look behind you(as we can't look back in time), you woudn't be able to see that car. It would be Out of Phase so to speak.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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