Can Converting Secant to Cosine Simplify Integration by Parts?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves integrating the expression \(\int x\sec^{2}x \, dx\) using integration by parts. The original poster considers converting the secant term to cosine, expressing \(\sec^{2}x\) as \(\cos^{-2}x\), and explores the implications of this conversion on the integration process.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to convert secant to cosine and questions whether this approach complicates the integration process. Some participants suggest not converting secant at all, highlighting that \(\sec^{2}x\) is the derivative of a trigonometric function. Others propose using the polynomial portion as \(u\) in the integration by parts method.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants offering different perspectives on the approach to take. Some guidance has been provided regarding the choice of \(u\) and \(dv\), indicating that recognizing the antiderivative of \(\sec^{2}(x)\) is crucial. There is no explicit consensus, but multiple strategies are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of integration by parts and the implications of different choices for \(u\) and \(dv\). The original poster's concern about the conversion complicating the integral reflects a common challenge in integration techniques.

AStaunton
Messages
100
Reaction score
1
problem is to integrate the following by parts:

[tex]\int x\sec^{2}xdx[/tex]

my feeling is convert the secant term to cosine by:

[tex]sec^{2}x=cos^{-2}x\Rightarrow\int\sec^{2}xdx=\int\cos^{-2}xdx[/tex]

then:

[tex]u=\cos^{-2}x\implies du=2\sin x(\cos^{-3}x)[/tex]

and also:

[tex]dv=xdx\implies v=\frac{x^{2}}{2}[/tex]

however plugging all this into int. by parts equation ends up with:

[tex]\frac{x^{2}}{2}\cos^{-2}x-\int2\frac{x^{2}}{2}\sin x\cos^{-3}xdx[/tex]

which seems to be an even more complicated integral...

is my idea of converting the secant to cosine a good or does it make more complicated?

any advice appreciated
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I wouldn't convert the secant term at all. Remember that sec2 x is the derivative of some trig function.
 
While recognizing the antiderivative of sec^2(x) is the real key to this problem, many times it will make the problem easier if you can eliminate the polynomial portion by choosing that as your u.
 
osnarf said:
While recognizing the antiderivative of sec^2(x) is the real key to this problem, many times it will make the problem easier if you can eliminate the polynomial portion by choosing that as your u.
In this case: both of these ideas will work together.

[tex]\text{Let: }u=x\quad\text{ and let: }\quad dv=\sec^2(x)\,dx\ .[/tex]

This works out nicely!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K