- #1
LLT71
- 73
- 5
has Fourier used sin(x) and cos(x) in his series because "there must be such interval [a,b] where integral of "some function"*sin(x) on that interval will be zero?" so based on that he concluded that any function can be represented by infinite sum of sin(x) and cos(x) cause they are "orthogonal" to any function.
let me recall my last thread on "orthogonality" as well to see if I got it right or missed the whole point:
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/orthogonality-of-functions.891717/#post-5611182
extra question: is there possibility that you can find such "a" and "b" where ∫f(x)dx from a to b = zero or at least "try" using some "equation" or so?
thanks!
let me recall my last thread on "orthogonality" as well to see if I got it right or missed the whole point:
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/orthogonality-of-functions.891717/#post-5611182
extra question: is there possibility that you can find such "a" and "b" where ∫f(x)dx from a to b = zero or at least "try" using some "equation" or so?
thanks!