Can Functions f and g Exist Such That f(x)g(y) = x + y for All Real x, y?

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The discussion centers on proving that no functions f and g exist such that f(x)g(y) = x + y for all real x and y. Participants suggest starting with the equation h(x, y) = x + y and exploring implications of f(0) and g(0) being non-zero. They derive that if f(0) and g(0) are both non-zero, it leads to a contradiction regarding the values of a and b, which represent f(0) and g(0). The conversation highlights the necessity of examining cases where f(0) or g(0) equals zero, ultimately leading to the conclusion that such functions cannot exist. The exploration of derivatives and continuity is also mentioned but deemed unnecessary for the proof.
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Homework Statement


How to show that there exist no function f,g:R\nearrowR satisfying f(x)g(y)=x+y, for all real x,y?


Homework Equations



Any equation for showing function?

The Attempt at a Solution



how about starting with sumthing like let h(x,y)=x+y ??
 
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thchian said:

Homework Statement


How to show that there exist no function f,g:R\nearrowR satisfying f(x)g(y)=x+y, for all real x,y?

Homework Equations



Any equation for showing function?

The Attempt at a Solution



how about starting with sumthing like let h(x,y)=x+y ??
I would recommend exploring what would have to be true if such a formula were true. For example, if f(x)g(y)= x+ y, then f(0) g(y)= y for all y so if we set a= f(0), and a\ne 0, g(y)= y/a. Similarly, f(x)g(0)= x so if b= g(0), and b\ne 0, then f(x)= x/b. That means that we must have f(x)g(y)= xy/ab for some numbers a and b, provided f(0) and g(0) are not equal to 0. You will need to determine what happens if f(0)= 0 and g(0)= 0.
 


You could try to construct f(x) and g(y) via their derivatives and lead this to a contradiction.
Alternatively, consider f(0)g(a), f(a)g(0) and so on.
 


mfb said:
You could try to construct f(x) and g(y) via their derivatives and lead this to a contradiction.
Alternatively, consider f(0)g(a), f(a)g(0) and so on.

This assumes continuity, differentiability, etc., which was not part of the problem statement.
 


We know that f(x)g(y) is differentiable. Anyway, we don't need it, as the result of the integral is already there:

Consider ##x\neq-y## => ##g(y)\neq 0##:
f(x)=(x+y)/g(y) (you could derive both sides with respect to x here)
That leads to the same concept as HallsofIvy proposed.
 


HallsofIvy said:
I would recommend exploring what would have to be true if such a formula were true. For example, if f(x)g(y)= x+ y, then f(0) g(y)= y for all y so if we set a= f(0), and a\ne 0, g(y)= y/a. Similarly, f(x)g(0)= x so if b= g(0), and b\ne 0, then f(x)= x/b. That means that we must have f(x)g(y)= xy/ab for some numbers a and b, provided f(0) and g(0) are not equal to 0. You will need to determine what happens if f(0)= 0 and g(0)= 0.

so, i get this...
a=0 when b\ne 0
b=0 when a\ne 0
ab=0 when a\ne 0 and b\ne 0
then, i get nothing here... so, what does it mean? Am i approaching the wrong way?
 


thchian said:
ab=0 when a\ne 0 and b\ne 0
There is your contradiction, if you really know this.
 
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