St41n
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I don't understand how it is possible to show using the Minkowski's Inequality that
(\sum x_i )^a \leq \sum x_i^a where x_i \geq 0 \forall i and 0<a<1.
I also tried to prove this without using Minkowski, but to no avail.
This is driving me crazy although it seems to be trivial in the literature.
I will appreciate any help
(\sum x_i )^a \leq \sum x_i^a where x_i \geq 0 \forall i and 0<a<1.
I also tried to prove this without using Minkowski, but to no avail.
This is driving me crazy although it seems to be trivial in the literature.
I will appreciate any help