Can You Confirm My Fourier Series Calculation for a Square Wave?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the Fourier series for a square wave function defined over the interval (−π, π). The original poster presents their calculations for the Fourier coefficients and expresses uncertainty about their correctness, seeking confirmation from others.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of Fourier coefficients, particularly questioning the signs and values of the coefficients derived. There are attempts to clarify the relationship between the coefficients and the sine or cosine functions used in the series.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided feedback on the calculations, noting potential errors in the coefficients and suggesting alternative expressions. There is an ongoing exploration of different forms of the coefficients, with no clear consensus yet on the correct formulation.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework assignment, which may limit the information they can share or the methods they can use. There is a focus on deriving algebraic expressions for the coefficients, with some questioning the necessity of avoiding trigonometric functions.

BOAS
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Hello,

I think that I have done this correctly, but this is the first problem I have done on my own and would appreciate confirmation.

1. Homework Statement


Find the Fourier series corresponding to the following functions that are periodic over the interval (−π, π) with: (a) f(x) = 1 for −\frac{π}{2} < x < \frac{π}{2} and f(x) = 0 otherwise.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
The first coefficient a_{0} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5\pi}_{-0.5\pi} f(x) dx = 1

a_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5\pi}_{-0.5\pi} \cos(nx) dx

which leads to the following;

a_{n} = - \frac{1}{n \pi} ((-1^{n}) - 1)

b_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5 \pi}_{-0.5 \pi} \sin(nx) dx = 0

so my Fourier series is;

f(x) = 1/2 + \frac{2}{\pi}(\cos(x) - \frac{1}{3}\cos(3x) + \frac{1}{5}\cos(5x) - ... + )

or f(x) = \frac{1}{2} + \Sigma^{\infty}_{n = 1} (- \frac{1}{n \pi}( (-1)^{n} - 1)) \cos(nx)

Does this look ok?

Thanks
 
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all sins looks good. seems to add up to 1 at origin.
 
cellurl said:
all sins looks good. seems to add up to 1 at origin.

I think I have made a mistake somewhere, based on some plots I made in mathematica.

It does not appear to be creating a square wave.

I will go through it again.
 
BOAS said:
Hello,

I think that I have done this correctly, but this is the first problem I have done on my own and would appreciate confirmation.

1. Homework Statement


Find the Fourier series corresponding to the following functions that are periodic over the interval (−π, π) with: (a) f(x) = 1 for −\frac{π}{2} < x < \frac{π}{2} and f(x) = 0 otherwise.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
The first coefficient a_{0} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5\pi}_{-0.5\pi} f(x) dx = 1

a_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5\pi}_{-0.5\pi} \cos(nx) dx

which leads to the following;

a_{n} = - \frac{1}{n \pi} ((-1^{n}) - 1)

b_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5 \pi}_{-0.5 \pi} \sin(nx) dx = 0

so my Fourier series is;

f(x) = 1 + \frac{2}{\pi}(\sin(x) - \frac{1}{3}\sin(3x) + \frac{1}{5}\sin(5x) - ... + )

or f(x) = \frac{1}{2} + \Sigma^{\infty}_{n = 1} (- \frac{1}{n \pi}( (-1)^{n} - 1)) \sin(nx)

Does this look ok?

Thanks

Aha! I have found the mistake.

The a_{n} coefficients are related to \cos(nx) not \sin(nx)
 
BOAS said:
Hello,

I think that I have done this correctly, but this is the first problem I have done on my own and would appreciate confirmation.

1. Homework Statement


Find the Fourier series corresponding to the following functions that are periodic over the interval (−π, π) with: (a) f(x) = 1 for −\frac{π}{2} < x < \frac{π}{2} and f(x) = 0 otherwise.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
The first coefficient a_{0} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5\pi}_{-0.5\pi} f(x) dx = 1

a_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5\pi}_{-0.5\pi} \cos(nx) dx

which leads to the following;

a_{n} = - \frac{1}{n \pi} ((-1^{n}) - 1)

b_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int^{0.5 \pi}_{-0.5 \pi} \sin(nx) dx = 0

so my Fourier series is;

f(x) = 1 + \frac{2}{\pi}(\cos(x) - \frac{1}{3}\cos(3x) + \frac{1}{5}\cos(5x) - ... + )

or f(x) = \frac{1}{2} + \Sigma^{\infty}_{n = 1} (- \frac{1}{n \pi}( (-1)^{n} - 1)) \cos(nx)

Does this look ok?

Thanks

No, it is not OK. Your formula for the coefficients give results that are either 0 or positive, because ##-[(-1)^n - 1] = 1 - (-1)^n## is 0 for even n and 2 for odd n. In fact, the ##a_n## for successive odd n should alternate in sign. (However, when you subsequently wrote out the first few terms of the series, you did have alternating signs. How did that happen?)
 
Ray Vickson said:
No, it is not OK. Your formula for the coefficients give results that are either 0 or positive, because ##-[(-1)^n - 1] = 1 - (-1)^n## is 0 for even n and 2 for odd n. In fact, the ##a_n## for successive odd n should alternate in sign. (However, when you subsequently wrote out the first few terms of the series, you did have alternating signs. How did that happen?)

I computed several coefficients for a, which lead me to observe the alternating sign pattern. My mistaken formula was not used there, I evaluated the expression for each.

I don't know if this is the prettiest formula, but it does the trick.

a_{n} = \frac{2}{\pi + 2(n-1) \pi} (-1)^{n-1}
 
BOAS said:
I computed several coefficients for a, which lead me to observe the alternating sign pattern. My mistaken formula was not used there, I evaluated the expression for each.

I don't know if this is the prettiest formula, but it does the trick.

a_{n} = \frac{2}{\pi + 2(n-1) \pi} (-1)^{n-1}

Another one is
a_n = \frac{2}{\pi} \frac{\sin(n \pi/2)}{n}.
 
Ray Vickson said:
Another one is
a_n = \frac{2}{\pi} \frac{\sin(n \pi/2)}{n}.

This result pops out very easily when performing the integral that defines a_n.

I was trying to find an algebraic expression to model that, mainly because it's what I saw on an example in class. Am I just making things harder on myself, or is there any benefit to showing it like this?
 
BOAS said:
This result pops out very easily when performing the integral that defines a_n.

I was trying to find an algebraic expression to model that, mainly because it's what I saw on an example in class. Am I just making things harder on myself, or is there any benefit to showing it like this?

Well, the numerator of the second fraction is 0 for even n, is +1 for n = 1, 5, 9, ... and is -1 for n = 3, 7, 11, ... .All you need to do is find a nifty way of describing that in a formula that does not involve trig functions, etc. It might be easier to write the relevant n in the form n = 2m+1, m = 0, 1, 2, ... . Now we need +1 for even m and -1 for odd m, so ##(-1)^m## will do it. That is,
a_{2m+1} = \frac{2 (-1)^m}{\pi (2m+1)}
 
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