Callmelucky
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But I still don't understand what causes that ##\F_2## because it's not viscosity and if the pipe is at the same height all the time than there is no gravitational force either.erobz said:Thats because of viscosity and air is also compressible. It adds a whole other layer of complexity to predicting the outcome of that experiment. Also "such a big difference" is a relative term here. The actual difference in pressure is , in terms of absolutes, small ( maybe 2"W.C. ?) , but clearly measurable. Furthermore, we have no idea what the velocity of the flow is in that experiment. Viscous losses go as ##\propto V^2##.
Bernoulli's pretends none of that exists.
