Cardinality of the set of all ordinals.

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What would the cardinality of the set of all ordinal numbers be? Is it even known or does the question even make sense in the case of such a weird, almost paradoxical set?
 
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The class of all ordinals doesn't form a set. There are simply too many ordinals to enclose them all in a set. Rather, the class of all ordinals forms a proper class. In ZFC set theory, there is no way to assign a cardinality to a proper class.

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