Cardinality using equivalences

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the cardinality equivalence between the intervals (0,1] and [0,1]. The user has successfully demonstrated that [0,1) has the same cardinality as (0,1] through injectivity and surjectivity, and that [0,1] is equivalent to (0,1) by establishing a function with an inverse. The user seeks alternative methods for proving the equivalence of (0,1] and [0,1], specifically exploring the use of equivalence relations, although they express skepticism about this approach. The cardinality definition is reinforced with the notation |A|=|B| indicating the existence of a bijection between sets A and B.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of cardinality and bijections in set theory
  • Familiarity with the concepts of injectivity and surjectivity
  • Knowledge of equivalence relations and their properties
  • Basic comprehension of uncountably infinite sets and their unions
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of equivalence relations in set theory
  • Study the concept of bijections in greater depth, particularly in relation to cardinality
  • Explore theorems regarding the union of uncountably infinite sets
  • Investigate alternative methods for proving cardinality equivalences beyond bijections
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of set theory, and anyone interested in understanding cardinality and its implications in mathematical proofs.

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I proved that [0,1) has the same cardinality as (0,1], by defining a function and then checking injectivity/surjectivity.
I proved [0,1] has the same cardinality as (0,1), by defining a function and showing it has an inverse.
I now have to prove that (0,1] has the same cardinality as [0,1], and I can use any of the equivalences established above.

What method should I use to do this?

Edit: I know how to prove it using previous methods (defining a function and proving bijection), I just want to know if this can be done another way- using equivalence relations maybe?
 
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SMA_01 said:
I proved that [0,1) has the same cardinality as (0,1], by defining a function and then checking injectivity/surjectivity.
I proved [0,1] has the same cardinality as (0,1), by defining a function and showing it has an inverse.
I now have to prove that (0,1] has the same cardinality as [0,1], and I can use any of the equivalences established above.

What method should I use to do this?

Edit: I know how to prove it using previous methods (defining a function and proving bijection), I just want to know if this can be done another way- using equivalence relations maybe?

I don't see any way of using equivalence relations.

|A|=|B| ⇔ There exists a bijection f:A→B

*where |A| denotes the cardinality of A*

So maybe you could say something like [0,1)U(0,1]=[0,1]

Then appeal to a theorem about the union of uncountably infinite sets?

Hope this helps
 

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