chipotleaway
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Cartesian product of indexed family of sets
The definition of a Cartesian product of an indexed family of sets (X_i)_{i\in I} is \Pi_{i\in I}X_i=\left\{f:I \rightarrow \bigcup_{i \in I} \right\}
So if I understand correctly, it's a function that maps every index i to an element f(i) such that f(i) \in X_i…my question is, is there supposed to be a notion of 'order' implied in the definition here?
The 'usual' Cartesian product is \Pi^n_{i=1}X_i=\left\{ (x_i)^n_{i=1}: x_i \in X_i \right\} and here, there seems to be some notion of 'order' cause the first element is in X_1, second in X_2 etc.
But for the first, if the index set is I={1,2,3}, then couldn't we have have X_1 \times X_2 \times X_3 or X_2\times X_1\times X_3 (any reordering of indices in the index set)? Then the definition of the Cartesian product could be ((f(1), f(2), f(3)) or (f(2), f(1), f(3))...
The definition of a Cartesian product of an indexed family of sets (X_i)_{i\in I} is \Pi_{i\in I}X_i=\left\{f:I \rightarrow \bigcup_{i \in I} \right\}
So if I understand correctly, it's a function that maps every index i to an element f(i) such that f(i) \in X_i…my question is, is there supposed to be a notion of 'order' implied in the definition here?
The 'usual' Cartesian product is \Pi^n_{i=1}X_i=\left\{ (x_i)^n_{i=1}: x_i \in X_i \right\} and here, there seems to be some notion of 'order' cause the first element is in X_1, second in X_2 etc.
But for the first, if the index set is I={1,2,3}, then couldn't we have have X_1 \times X_2 \times X_3 or X_2\times X_1\times X_3 (any reordering of indices in the index set)? Then the definition of the Cartesian product could be ((f(1), f(2), f(3)) or (f(2), f(1), f(3))...
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