Hi,
I'm actually going over some probability problems and I got a bit stuck in this one too.
If you let:
W=Z1/Z2 and V=Z2
Then truly Z1=V*W and Z2=V
And if you calculate the Jacobian determinant of such transformations you get:
Jacobian determinant = V (here we take the absolute value when sticking into formula below)
Therefore:
f(w,v) =[PLAIN]http://www3.wolframalpha.com/Calculate/MSP/MSP91219bfg00e7b70caif00005aa636h4egb540i1?MSPStoreType=image/gif&s=39&w=148&h=44
and so all you need to get the probability density function of W is to integrate the joint probability with respect to v as follows:
First note that: d/dv (e-v2(1+w2)/2) = -v(1+w2)*e-v2(1+w2)/2
=>[PLAIN]http://www3.wolframalpha.com/Calculate/MSP/MSP243119bff8ch835e1b7i00001639e2c5d96b97gg?MSPStoreType=image/gif&s=39&w=366&h=54
and here is where I seem to be overlooking something, in order to get f(w) you must evaluate the integral from minus infinity to plus infinity and so I believe you get:
[PLAIN]http://www3.wolframalpha.com/Calculate/MSP/MSP237019bff8ch83i380ib0000641a5786ggg043f3?MSPStoreType=image/gif&s=39&w=124&h=43
Which is just plainly equal to zero, so I must've done something wrong, can anyone spot what was it? I would appreciate if someone did. Thanks.