Cauchy Integral Formula application

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the Cauchy Integral Formula, specifically in the context of an analytic function \( f \) defined on an open set \( U \) and the evaluation of an integral involving \( f(z) \) and its derivative at a point \( z_0 \). Participants explore the expansion of \( f(z) - f(z_0) \) and its implications for the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the power series expansion of \( f(z) \) around \( z_0 \) and question the validity of the expansion of \( f(z) - f(z_0) \). There is also exploration of the nature of singularities and the conditions under which \( g(z) \) remains analytic.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the nature of analytic functions and the implications of the Cauchy Integral Formula. Some guidance has been offered regarding the conditions under which \( g(z) \) is analytic and the relationship between the circle \( C \) and the behavior of \( g(z) \).

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating assumptions about the analyticity of \( f(z) \) and the implications of its Taylor series expansion. There is a focus on the definitions and properties of singularities in the context of the integral being evaluated.

fauboca
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f is analytic on an open set U, z_0\in U, and f'(z_0)\neq 0. Show that

\frac{2\pi i}{f'(z_0)}=\int_C\frac{1}{f(z)-f(z_0)}dz

where $C$ is some circle center at $z_0$.

S0 ,f(z)-f(z_0) = a_1(z-z_0)+a_2(z-z_0)^2+\cdots with a_1=f'(z_0)\neq 0. But why can f(z)-f(z_0) be expanded this way?
 
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You are given that f(z) is analytic. Doesn't that mean it can be locally expanded in a power series?
 
Dick said:
You are given that f(z) is analytic. Doesn't that mean it can be locally expanded in a power series?

Yes but I don't understand how the expansion of f(z)-f(z_0) is that expansion.
 
f(z) is analytic at z=z0 if f(z)=a0+a1*(z-z0)+a2*(z-z0)^2+... in a neighborhood of z0? What's f(z0)?
 
Dick said:
f(z) is analytic at z=z0 if f(z)=a0+a1*(z-z0)+a2*(z-z0)^2+... in a neighborhood of z0? What's f(z0)?

The accumulation point.
 
fauboca said:
The accumulation point.

No, f(z0)=a0.
 
Dick said:
No, f(z0)=a0.


The Taylor Series expansion of f(z) = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}c_n(z - z_0)^n = c_0 + c_1(z - z_0) + c_2(z - z_0)^2 +\cdots, and f(z_0) = c_0.
So,
$$
f(z) - f(z_0) = c_1(z - z_0) + c_2(z - z_0)^2 +\cdots.
$$
By factoring, we obtain f(z) - f(z_0) = c_1(z - z_0)\left[1 + \frac{c_2}{c_1}(z - z_0)^2 +\cdots\right].
Then
$$
\frac{z - z_0}{f(z) - f(z_0)} = \frac{1}{c_1 + c_2(z - z_0) + \cdots}.
$$
So g(z) = \frac{z - z_0}{f(z) - f(z_0)} is analytic on a disc (what is the justification for this part-analytic?) at z_0 (How does this disc relate to C?) and where the value of z_0 is redefined as 1/c_1.
From Cauchy's Theorem, we have
$$
\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_C\frac{g(z)}{z - z_0} = g(z_0) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_C\frac{dz}{f(z) - f(z_0)} = \frac{1}{f'(z_0)}
$$
hence
$$
\int_C\frac{dz}{f(z) - f(z_0)} = \frac{2\pi i}{f'(z_0)}.
$$
 
Your g(z) has a removable singularity at z=z0. And the problem just says "some circle centered at z0". Take the circle small enough so that g(z) is analytic in the circle.
 
Ok thanks.
 

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