MHB Centre of an Algebra .... and Central Algebras ....

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The discussion revolves around the concept of the center of a unital algebra as defined in Matej Bresar's book, "Introduction to Noncommutative Algebra." Participants clarify that the center, denoted as Z(A), includes scalar multiples of unity, such as 3, and demonstrate that these elements commute with all elements in the algebra. The compatibility axiom for algebras over a field is referenced, which supports the commutation property. Additionally, a convention is highlighted where scalars from the field are identified with their corresponding multiples of the unity element in the algebra. The conversation concludes with acknowledgments for the assistance provided in understanding these concepts.
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I am reading Matej Bresar's book, "Introduction to Noncommutative Algebra" and am currently focussed on Chapter 1: Finite Dimensional Division Algebras ... ...

I need help with some remarks of Bresar on the centre of an algebra ...

Commencing a section on Central Algebras, Bresar writes the following:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/6243
In the above text we read the following:

" ... The center of a unital algebra obviously contains scalar multiples of unity ... ... "Now the center of a unital algebra $$A$$ is defined as the set $$Z(A)$$ such that

$$Z(A) = \{ c \in A \ | \ cx = xc \text{ for all x } \in A \} $$Now ... clearly $$1 \in Z(A)$$ since $$1x = x1$$ for all $$x$$ ...

BUT ... why do elements like $$3$$ belong to $$Z(A)$$ ... ?

That is ... how would we demonstrate that $$3x = x3$$ for all $$x \in A$$ ... ?

Hope someone can help ...

Peter
 
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Well, using the distributive properties and the fact that $x = x1$ for all $x$,

$$3x = x + x + x = x1 + x1 + x1 = x(1 + 1 + 1) = x3$$
 
More generally, one of the axioms for an algebra $A$ over a field $F$ says that $$\lambda(xy) = (\lambda x)y = x(\lambda y)$$ for all $\lambda\in F$ and $x,y\in A.$ It follows that $$\lambda x = \lambda(x1) = x(\lambda 1) = x\lambda.$$
 
Euge said:
Well, using the distributive properties and the fact that $x = x1$ for all $x$,

$$3x = x + x + x = x1 + x1 + x1 = x(1 + 1 + 1) = x3$$
Thanks Euge ...

Just wondering how you did this without using the axiom that Opalg refers to ... I think it is called "The Compatibility Axiom" ... ... namely ... ... for an algebra $A$ over a field $F$ says that $$\lambda(xy) = (\lambda x)y = x(\lambda y)$$ for all $\lambda\in F$ and $x,y\in A.$ ...

As Opalg says ... It follows that $$\lambda x = \lambda(x1) = x(\lambda 1) = x\lambda.$$

... but you don's appear to need it ... why?

Peter
 
Opalg said:
More generally, one of the axioms for an algebra $A$ over a field $F$ says that $$\lambda(xy) = (\lambda x)y = x(\lambda y)$$ for all $\lambda\in F$ and $x,y\in A.$ It follows that $$\lambda x = \lambda(x1) = x(\lambda 1) = x\lambda.$$
Hi Opalg ... thanks for the help ...

But ... just need a further point clarified ...

You write:

" ... ... It follows that $$\lambda x = \lambda(x1) = x(\lambda 1) = x\lambda.$$ ..."
But in this statement $$1 \in A$$ ... that is we are dealing with $$1_A$$ ... ...

and your equation

$$\lambda x = \lambda(x1) = x(\lambda 1) = x\lambda.$$

uses the equality or equivalence $$\lambda 1_A = \lambda $$Now ... although it is clear from the axioms that apply that $$\lambda 1_F = \lambda$$ ... ...... why is it the case that $$\lambda 1_A = \lambda$$ ... what axiom

underpins this statement.

Can you help?

Peter
 
Peter said:
Thanks Euge ...

Just wondering how you did this without using the axiom that Opalg refers to ... I think it is called "The Compatibility Axiom" ... ... namely ... ... for an algebra $A$ over a field $F$ says that $$\lambda(xy) = (\lambda x)y = x(\lambda y)$$ for all $\lambda\in F$ and $x,y\in A.$ ...

As Opalg says ... It follows that $$\lambda x = \lambda(x1) = x(\lambda 1) = x\lambda.$$

... but you don's appear to need it ... why?

Peter

An algebra over a field is, in particular, a vector space of the field -- so the distributive properties hold. With that, the result follows immediately.
 
Peter said:
... why is it the case that $$\lambda 1_A = \lambda$$ ... what axiom

underpins this statement.
This is not an axiom, but a convention, as stated by Bresar just after his Definition 1.14. In the section of text that you reproduce above, he states "... we identify $F$ with $F\cdot 1$, and write $\lambda$ instead". The rest of the sentence is omitted, but presumably it says "... write $\lambda$ instead of $\lambda 1$".
 
Opalg said:
This is not an axiom, but a convention, as stated by Bresar just after his Definition 1.14. In the section of text that you reproduce above, he states "... we identify $F$ with $F\cdot 1$, and write $\lambda$ instead". The rest of the sentence is omitted, but presumably it says "... write $\lambda$ instead of $\lambda 1$".
Thanks to Opalg and Euge for considerable help on this issue ...

You posts were a real help ...

Peter
 

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