Chance of rolling at most one six with two dice in 20 rolls.

In summary: In 40 rolls, there is a 1 in 4 chance of getting a six. So, you are claiming that there is a 1 in 4 chance of getting at most one six with 20 rolls of two dice, and this is the probability you are looking for.
  • #1
lo2
55
0

Homework Statement



Well as I said what is the chance of getting at most one six when rolling two dice twenty times?

Homework Equations



I know the probability of getting one six in one roll with two dice is:

11/36

And not getting one is:

25/36

The Attempt at a Solution



Then I figured out that the probability of not getting a 6 in [itex]n[/itex] rolls is equal to:

[itex]P = 1 - (\frac{25}{36})^n[/itex]

So is that so?

And how do you calculate the proability of getting at most one 6 in twenty rolls?
 
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  • #2
I can confirm your probability of getting no 6 in all rolls.

Your initial problem is unclear to me: What happens if you roll (6,6) one time and "no 6" the other 19 times? Your approach for a solution would include this in the probability, but the literal interpretation would not.

Anyway:
Can you calculate the probability to get exactly one 6 in 20 rolls?

If not, here is an easier subproblem: A 6 in the first roll, and no 6 in the other 19. How does that help to calculate the probability of exactly one 6 in 20 rolls?
 
  • #3
lo2 said:

Homework Statement



Well as I said what is the chance of getting at most one six when rolling two dice twenty times?

Homework Equations



I know the probability of getting one six in one roll with two dice is:

11/36

And not getting one is:

25/36

The Attempt at a Solution



Then I figured out that the probability of not getting a 6 in [itex]n[/itex] rolls is equal to:

[itex]P = 1 - (\frac{25}{36})^n[/itex]

So is that so?

And how do you calculate the proability of getting at most one 6 in twenty rolls?

Your probability P above makes no sense: it increases as n increases, with a limit of 1 as n → ∞, so you are claiming that for a very large number of rolls we are almost sure of not getting a six. That is, the more times we roll, the less chance we have of getting even one six. That is contrary to reality.

Anyway, what do you mean by 'getting a six'? With dice, the normal interpretation is that the total on the two dice is six.

You seem to be looking at the two dice separately and asking whether one of them shows a six. Since you are not adding the numbers, it would seem that 20 rolls of your two (separate) dies is the same as 40 rolls of a single die.
 

1. What is the probability of rolling at most one six with two dice?

The probability of rolling at most one six with two dice is approximately 0.6944 or 69.44%.

2. How did you calculate the probability?

The probability was calculated using the binomial distribution formula, which takes into account the number of trials, number of successes, and the probability of success in each trial. In this case, the probability of rolling a six on one die is 1/6, and since we want to roll at most one six in 20 rolls, the number of successes is 0 or 1.

3. Is the probability the same for all combinations of two dice?

No, the probability will vary depending on the specific combination of two dice. However, the overall probability of rolling at most one six in 20 rolls will remain the same.

4. Can the probability be higher or lower if more or fewer rolls are considered?

Yes, the probability will change if more or fewer rolls are considered. For example, the probability of rolling at most one six in 10 rolls will be lower than in 20 rolls.

5. Is this probability affected by other factors, such as the number of sides on the dice?

Yes, the probability will be affected if the number of sides on the dice is changed. For example, if the dice have more than six sides, the probability of rolling a six on one die will decrease, resulting in a lower overall probability of rolling at most one six in 20 rolls.

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