Changing derivative inside an integral

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 1K views
Denver Dang
Messages
143
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


Hello.

My teacher did something on the blackboard today that I really didn't figure out how was done.

He took this equation:
[tex]{{\mathcal{L}}^{\,\left( \alpha \right)}}=\frac{2{{e}^{2}}\tau }{m}\int_{-\infty }^{\infty }{g\left( \varepsilon \right)\varepsilon {{\left( \varepsilon -\mu \right)}^{\alpha }}\left( -\frac{\partial f}{\partial \varepsilon } \right)d\varepsilon }[/tex]
And then made a change into:
[tex]{{\mathcal{L}}^{\,\left( \alpha \right)}}=\frac{2{{e}^{2}}\tau }{m}\int_{-\infty }^{\infty }{\overbrace{\frac{\partial }{\partial \varepsilon }\left( g\left( \varepsilon \right)\varepsilon {{\left( \varepsilon -\mu \right)}^{\alpha }} \right)}^{H\left( \varepsilon \right)}f\left( \varepsilon \right)d\varepsilon }[/tex]
So he was able to use it in the Sommerfeld expansion.

But I don't know how he was able to change from the derivative of f (The fermi function) to that not being derived but the other expression.

So I was kinda hoping someone could help me figure this out :)

Thanks in advance.Regards
 
Physics news on Phys.org
That seems fair :)

Thank you very much.