Originally posted by Pseudonym
There is disagreement between scholars, but the phrase "as was supposed" in the original language may have had more the meaning "as is written," or that which was in the public records and could be easily verified.
Firstly, I wish to remind you that, while what you suggest may be true, we are not discussing what actually happened - we are discussing what the Bible says. The Bible tells us that Joseph has two different fathers. You explain this by saying that the Bible authors were misinformed or misled by inaccurate records. Your explanation is admittedly interesting, but it does not make the contradiction go away - it merely tells us why the contradiction exists.
Secondly, your explanation leads to another question - if "as is written" is the better translation, why does it never appear that way in any Bible? How many scholars consider "as is written" the best interpretation? In case you doubt me, here are several translations from different Bibles, some common, some obscure, all showing the standard NIV interpretation.
KJV: "And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,"
ASV: "And Jesus himself, when he began to teach, was about thirty years of age, being the son (as was supposed) of Joseph, the son of Heli,"
YLT (Young's Literal Translation): "And Jesus himself was beginning to be about thirty years of age, being, as was supposed, son of Joseph,"
DAR (Darby Translation): "And Jesus himself was beginning to be about thirty years old; being as was supposed son of Joseph; of Eli,"
WYC (Wycliffe New Testament): And Jesus himself was beginning as of thirty years, that he was guessed the son of Joseph, which was of Heli,
Again I find it hard to believe that early Christians would die for truths set out in books that were so blatantly opposed.
Again, this is peripheral to the actual issue, which is contradictions in the Bible. The early Christians had no Bible. But I should ask you - how many of the early Christians had both Matthew and Luke? And how many of them could read both Gospels?
Most
modern Christians are ignorant of this Biblical contradiction, and they are steeped in Bible verses from a young age. The early Christians lacked our benefits, and their "scripture" was very likely a series of unconnected letters and books, suplemented with snippets and scraps passed by word of mouth. They would have not have been in a position to examine two separate books and carefully check their individual lists.
If there isn't any more evidence that this is a contradiction, then I'd say that the case for it being one is pretty tenuous, although it doesn't appear this way on the surface.
I will be frank in telling you that I have had disturbing experiences with Christians telling me that black is white. While the above contradiction
does not disprove the divinity of Jesus Christ (this is not what I intended to show), it
is a contradiction in the Bible, and until you concede this fact, I will be uncomfortable with providing more information. So as not to seem miserly, however, I will give you one more contradiction. This one involves the other two gospels.
Mark 16: 2 "Very early on the first day of the week, just after sunrise, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought spices so that they might go to anoint Jesus' body."
John 20: 1 "Early on the first day of the week, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene went to the tomb."
John fails to mention Mary the mother of James and Salome, though it does not exclude their presence and thus this is not a contradiction, despite what atheists often like to say. (Atheists will make such statements about the sign above Jesus' head, which has different wording in each Gospel.) Note however these two phrases:
"after sunrise"
"while it was still dark"
So, when did they go to visit the tomb? Was it before sunrise? Or after sunrise?
--Mark