Classifying singularities of a complex function

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SUMMARY

The isolated singularities of the complex function \( f(z) = \frac{1}{e^z - 1} \) are located at \( z = 2n\pi i \) for \( n = 0, \pm 1, \pm 2, \ldots \). These singularities are classified as simple poles. The confusion arises from the derivative \( f'(z) = -\frac{e^z}{(e^z - 1)^2} \), which approaches infinity at the singularities, leading to a misunderstanding of the nature of simple poles. Evaluating \( (z - z_0) \cdot f(z) \) at the pole confirms that the limit is finite, reinforcing the classification of these singularities.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of complex functions and singularities
  • Familiarity with the concept of poles and their orders
  • Knowledge of the Laurent series expansion
  • Basic differentiation techniques in complex analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the classification of singularities in complex analysis
  • Learn about the properties of simple poles and their residues
  • Explore the derivation and application of the Laurent series
  • Investigate the behavior of complex functions near their singularities
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Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying complex analysis, as well as educators looking to clarify concepts related to singularities and poles in complex functions.

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Homework Statement


[/B]
Find and classify the isolated singularities of the following:

$$ f(z) = \frac {1}{e^z - 1}$$

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I have the solution for the positions of the singularities, which is: ## z = 2n\pi i## (for ##n = 0, \pm 1, \pm 2, ...##) and this makes sense. But the solution also says these are simple poles. This part I do not quite understand. For example, if I take the derivative of ##f(z)##, then ##f'(z) = -(e^z -1)^{-2} e^z## where ##f'(2n\pi i)## is also ##\infty##. Perhaps my understanding of simple poles is wrong, but I don't see any singularities of order 1 when considering the Laurent series of ##f(z)##.

Any ideas on why ## z = 2n\pi i## is considered a simple pole here?
 
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If ##z_0=1## is a pole of first order of ##f(z)##, what can be said about ##(z-z_0)\cdot f(z)##?
 
fresh_42 said:
If ##z_0=1## is a pole of first order of ##f(z)##, what can be said about ##(z-z_0)\cdot f(z)##?
Ahh that makes sense. When evaluating ##(z-z_0)\cdot f(z)## at ##z = z_0##, the value is finite. I incorrectly took the derivative above and treated this like a zero of order 1 instead of a pole. Thank you for the help.
 

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