Rasalhague
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I'm looking at Rao: Topology, Proposition 1.5.4, "A closed subspace of a Lindelöf space is Lindelöf." He gives a proof, which seems clear enough, using the idea that for each open cover of the subspace, there is an open cover of the superspace. But I can't yet see where he uses the fact that the subspace is closed. That's to say, I can't see why the proposition isn't true of an arbitrary subspace.
Here is Rao's proof in full. In his notation, given a topological space (X,\cal{T}) with a subset A \subseteq X, then \cal{T}_A is the subspace topology for A.
Here is Rao's proof in full. In his notation, given a topological space (X,\cal{T}) with a subset A \subseteq X, then \cal{T}_A is the subspace topology for A.
Let A be a closed subspace of a Lindelöf space (X,\cal{T}). Let C=\left \{ G_\lambda : \lambda \in \Lambda \right \} be a \cal{T}_A-open cover of A. Then G_\lambda = H_\lambda \cap A for some H_\lambda \in \cal{T}.
Now \left \{ H_\lambda : \lambda \in \Lambda \right \} is a \cal{T}-open cover of A. Hence \left \{ H_\lambda : \lambda \in \Lambda \right \} \cup (X\setminus A) is a \cal{T}-open cover for X.
Since X is Lindelöf, we can extract from this cover a countable subcover of X, say \left \{ H_{\lambda_1},H_{\lambda_2},... \right \}. Accordingly, \left \{ G_{\lambda_1},G_{\lambda_2},... \right \} is an open subcover of A. Hence (A,\cal{T}_A) is Lindelöf.