- #1

naima

Gold Member

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- 54

I came across this paper.

the author defines a covariant derivative in (1.3)

##D_\mu = \partial_\mu - ig A_\mu##

He defines in (1.6)

##F_{jk} = i/g [D_j,D_k]##

Why is it equal to ##\partial_j A_k - \partial_k A_j - ig [A_j, A_k]##?

I suppose that it comes from a property of Lie derivatives.

Thanks