It is not intuitive, for me at least, why when relating the velocity of 3 inertial frames (Say F1, F2 moving at v1 with respect to F1, and F3 moving at v2 with respect to F2), one mulitplies the transforms of F2 and F3 to get the transform for F1 with respect to F3 to get v3. I understand why v3 does not equal v1+v2 and have seen some very understandable derivations of the velocity composition formula. But I have not been able to find the derivation of how mupltiplying two transforms leads to the third (and thus leads to v3).(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks, Howard

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# Composition of Lorentz Transformations

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