BOAS
- 546
- 19
Hello,
simple question.
My textbook (Bostock and Chandler - Pure Mathematics 1) says something that really surprises me.
The bolded part is what shocked me, it seems like such a trivial statement and intuitively true. My book was first published in 1978, so perhaps it is out of date.
It goes on to say;
Which seems contradictory... So, has or has not this idea been proven true?
Thanks!
simple question.
My textbook (Bostock and Chandler - Pure Mathematics 1) says something that really surprises me.
When the same investigation is carried out on f(\theta) \equiv sin3\theta we find that the function is cyclic with a period of \frac{2\pi}{3} so that 3 complete cycles occur between 0 and 2\pi. It seems likely (Although it has not been generally proved) that the graph of the function f(\theta) \equiv sink\theta is a sine wave with a period of \frac{2\pi}{k} and a frequency k times that of f(\theta) \equiv sin\theta
The bolded part is what shocked me, it seems like such a trivial statement and intuitively true. My book was first published in 1978, so perhaps it is out of date.
It goes on to say;
These properties are, in fact, valid for all values of k
Which seems contradictory... So, has or has not this idea been proven true?
Thanks!
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