Confusing Integration Question?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around an integration problem involving the function I(y) and its relationship to the arctangent function. Participants express confusion regarding the nature of I(y) and its limits as y approaches 0 and infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question whether I(y) is a function or an operator, and they explore the implications of the equation I(y) - I(∞) = (∏/2) - tan-1y. There is also discussion about the limits of I(y) as y approaches 0 and infinity.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered clarifications regarding the definition of I(y) and its limits, while others are still grappling with the terminology and implications of the problem. There is a mix of understanding and confusion, with some participants indicating progress in their comprehension.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working with a specific integration question that includes limits and the arctangent function. There is an emphasis on understanding the definitions and relationships within the problem, but some assumptions remain unexamined.

unscientific
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Confusing Integration Question??

Homework Statement



The question is as attached.

The Attempt at a Solution



I am very confused by the question. Firstly is I(y) a function like (tan-1y) or an operator like ∫y?

Then they say I(y) - I(∞) = (∏/2) - tan-1y so I suppose that I(y) is basically just -tan-1y.I(y) - I(∞) = (∏/2) - tan-1y

lim(y→0) [ I(y) - I(∞) ] = (∏/2) - 0 = (∏/2)

But returning to the question, as you let y→0, all you get is

y(0) = ∫ sinx /x dx = tan-10 = 0

But that doesn't look right at all.I hope someone can clear up all the terminology they are using...
 

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unscientific said:

Homework Statement



The question is as attached.



The Attempt at a Solution



I am very confused by the question. Firstly is I(y) a function like (tan-1y) or an operator like ∫y?

Then they say I(y) - I(∞) = (∏/2) - tan-1y so I suppose that I(y) is basically just -tan-1y.


I(y) - I(∞) = (∏/2) - tan-1y

lim(y→0) [ I(y) - I(∞) ] = (∏/2) - 0 = (∏/2)

But returning to the question, as you let y→0, all you get is

y(0) = ∫ sinx /x dx = tan-10 = 0

But that doesn't look right at all.


I hope someone can clear up all the terminology they are using...

The terminology is very clear: I(y) is a function of y, given by a formula in the picture.

RGV
 


But when they take the limit of y->0, all you get is I(0) = ∫ sinx /x dx = tan-10 = 0When you take the limit of y-> ∞, all you get is I(∞) = 0 (If you substitute ∞ into the question)
 
Last edited:


unscientific said:
Then they say I(y) - I(∞) = (∏/2) - tan-1y so I suppose that I(y) is basically just -tan-1y.

They say very plainly that [itex]I(\infty) = 0[/itex], so [itex]I(y) = \frac {\pi} {2} - tan^{-1}(y)[/itex], including [itex]y = 0[/itex].
 


voko said:
They say very plainly that [itex]I(\infty) = 0[/itex], so [itex]I(y) = \frac {\pi} {2} - tan^{-1}(y)[/itex], including [itex]y = 0[/itex].

Oh I think I got it now! Cause when you integrate ∂/∂y = - 1/(1+y2) you get

I(y) = -tan-1y + C

Based on the first equation, we know y(∞) but not y(0).

I(∞) = 0, so you solve C = ∏/2...


Everything makes sense now, thank you!
 

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