Conquering the Integral of (1/x)*exp(-ax^2): A Scientific Inquiry

  • Thread starter Thread starter GrandsonOfMagnusCarl
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integrating
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the challenges of integrating the function (1/x)*exp(-ax^2), with initial attempts using Taylor expansion resulting in complications due to zeros and infinities. WolframAlpha suggests a special function for the integral, indicating that a straightforward hand solution may not be feasible. Participants express frustration over the complexity of the problem, with one noting that the expectation value is infinite. A realization occurs regarding the odd nature of the function, leading to the conclusion that the average value is zero. The conversation highlights the difficulties in tackling this integral analytically.
GrandsonOfMagnusCarl
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
Essentially - find <1/x>, i.e. the mean of 1/x. The distribution probability density is of the form exp(-ax^2).
Relevant Equations
Mean of G = integrate ( G f(x) ) dx
Hopeless. I tried to use Taylor expansion but the zeroes and infinities go out of control really quick.
I tried WolframAlpha and it gave a special function.
What integrating trick am I missing? Or is it nonsense to solve it simply by hand?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The expectation value is infinite.
 
  • Like
Likes GrandsonOfMagnusCarl
Orodruin said:
The expectation value is infinite.
Ah I'm so stupid. Thank you. Also another reality check for me.
 
<1/x>=0 as 1/x is an odd function and G*f(x) is then also odd.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
Replies
20
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
7K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
13K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K