Convergence of a Sequence: Proving Existence of Limit Using Cauchy Sequences

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the existence of a limit for a sequence defined by certain inequalities involving another sequence. The original poster presents a problem involving a limited sequence \( (a_n) \) and a sequence \( (b_n) \) constrained by \( 0 \leq b_n \leq \frac{1}{2} B_{n-1} \), with the goal of demonstrating that if \( a_{n+1} \ge a_n - b_n \), then \( \lim_{n\to \infty} a_n \) exists.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the inequalities and the behavior of the sequences involved. There are discussions about the nature of \( b_n \) and its dependence on \( n \), as well as the conditions under which \( (a_n) \) can be considered a Cauchy sequence. Questions arise regarding the validity of certain steps in the reasoning and the need for careful handling of inequalities.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on each other's reasoning and suggesting clarifications. Some participants have offered hints and guidance on how to approach proving the convergence of the sequence, while others have pointed out potential missteps in the logic presented. There is a recognition of the need for a more rigorous approach to establishing the Cauchy condition for the sequence.

Contextual Notes

There are indications that participants are grappling with the definitions and properties of convergent sequences, particularly in relation to the Cauchy criterion. The conversation highlights the importance of precise language and careful manipulation of inequalities in mathematical proofs.

Felafel
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I think the solution I've found makes sense, but I'd like it to be double-checked.

Homework Statement



Let ##(a_n)## be a limited sequence and ##(b_n)## such that ##0≤b_n≤ \frac{1}{2} B_{n-1} ##

Prove that if
##a_{n+1} \ge a_{n} -b_{n}##

Then
##\lim_{n\to \infty}a_n##

exists.

The Attempt at a Solution



I can say that ##b_n \ge (\frac{1}{2})^n b_0 ## which is constant.
THen,
##a_n-a_{n+1} \ge (\frac{1}{2})^nb_0##

Thus ##|a_n-a{n+1}| ## is a Cauchy sequence, which means it converges and therefore the limit exists.
 
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You need to watch your inequality signs a bit. From ##0\leq b_n\leq\frac12b_{n-1}## you get ##0\leq b_n\leq(\frac12)^nb_0##. And that isn't a constant, since it depends on ##n##. What you probably mean is that ##b_0## is constant.

Then, ##a_n-a_{n+1}\leq(\frac12)^nb_0##. But how do you now conclude that ##(|a_n-a_{n+1}|)_{n\in\mathbb N}## is a Cauchy sequence? And even if it is, how does that make the sequence ##(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}## converge?
 
Right, ##\frac{1}{2}^nb_0## is not a constant, but for n diverging to ##\infty b_0## gets smaller and smaller, so ##a_n-a_{n+1}## is bounded above.
For Cauchy's criterion a sequence converges to something if and only if this holds:
for every  ##\epsilon> 0## there exists n* such that ##|a_n-a_m| < \epsilon ## whenever n, m > n*.
Let's just call ##\frac{1}{2}b_0=\epsilon## and ##a_m=a_{n+1}##. for a n*, big enough, the criterion holds.
 
Felafel said:
Right, ##\frac{1}{2}^nb_0## is not a constant, but for n diverging to ##\infty b_0## gets smaller and smaller, so ##a_n-a_{n+1}## is bounded above.
For Cauchy's criterion a sequence converges to something if and only if this holds:
for every ##\epsilon> 0## there exists n* such that ##|a_n-a_m| < \epsilon ## whenever n, m > n*.
Let's just call ##\frac{1}{2}b_0=\epsilon## and ##a_m=a_{n+1}##. for a n*, big enough, the criterion holds.

That's not sufficient.

You need to show that for all \epsilon &gt; 0, there exists N \in \mathbb{N} such that for all n,m \geq N, |a_n - a_m| &lt; \epsilon. You can't just choose a particular \epsilon.

Hint: Without loss of generality you can take m &gt; n. Then
|a_n - a_m| = |a_n - a_{n+1} + a_{n+1} + \dots - a_{m-1} + a_{m-1} - a_m|<br />
 
Last edited:
ok, what if I prove it this way:
by definition, a sequent is convergent when the following property holds:
for every ## \epsilon>0 ## there exists an ##N## such that for every n## \geq N##, we have
## |a_n-L|<\epsilon##.
In this exercise I have ##|a_n - a_m| < \epsilon##
but by taking
##n,m \geq N##
I can obtain
##|a_n-a_m+L-L|<\epsilon ##which is ## \geq |a_n-L|+|a-M-L| \geq \frac{\epsilon}{2}+\frac{\epsilon}{2} ##
is this what you meant?
 
Felafel said:
Right, ##\frac{1}{2}^nb_0## is not a constant, but for n diverging to ##\infty b_0## gets smaller and smaller, ...

##b_0## doesn't get smaller, ever. You really should be more careful about what you put in words, because you need even more care with formulas.

Felafel said:
In this exercise I have ##|a_n - a_m| < \epsilon##
but by taking
##n,m \geq N##
I can obtain
##|a_n-a_m+L-L|<\epsilon ##

You don't have ##|a_n-a_m|<\epsilon##. That's what you want to get. What you're using here is called "circular reasoning", and it's a very easy mistake to make -- confusing what you are aiming at with what you're starting off with.

I think you might try pasmith's suggestion: Assume ##m>n## and have a look at
$$
|a_n-a_m| = |a_n-a_{n-1}+a_{n-1}-a_{n-2}+a_{n-2}-\ldots-a_{m+2}+a_{m+2}-a_{m+1}+a_{m+1}-a_m|
$$
 
Michael Redei said:
I think you might try pasmith's suggestion: Assume ##m>n## and have a look at
$$
|a_n-a_m| = |a_n-a_{n-1}+a_{n-1}-a_{n-2}+a_{n-2}-\ldots-a_{m+2}+a_{m+2}-a_{m+1}+a_{m+1}-a_m|
$$
thanks! is it okay now?:
##|a_n - a_m| \le |a_n - a_{n-1}| + |a_{n-1}-a_{n-2}|+...+|a_m - a_{m-1}| ##
each member of this sum is ≤ ##(\frac{1}{2})^nb_0## thus ##|a_n-a_m|## converges.
(i don't know exactly how to formally find ##\epsilon##
can I also add that ##b_n## goes to 0 due to the squeeze rule?
thanks again
 
You must check your inequalities better. Each member of that sum is ##\leq(\frac12)^{n-1}b_0## (note the exponent).

Also, you don't find ##\epsilon##. That value is just assumed to be positive, and you must show that the sum is smaller than ##\epsilon##. So you need to ensure that
$$
\left(\frac12\right)^{n-1}b_0 < \epsilon.
$$
Suppose you solve that and get some integer ##N## as a result. Then you can re-write your proof "backwards":

Let ##\epsilon>0## be given. Then we set ##N=(\ldots \epsilon \ldots)##, and for ##n,m\geq N## with ##m>n## we have
$$
\epsilon > \left(\frac12\right)^Nb_0 \geq \ldots \geq |a_n-a_m|.
$$
This proves that ##(a_n)## is a Cauchy sequence, and so this sequence must converge. QED
 
Michael Redei said:
QED

thank you, i really didn't get it
 

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