Converted Cartesian coordinates to polar coordinates

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the conversion of Cartesian coordinates to polar coordinates, specifically in the context of the Laplacian operator. The user initially misapplies the Laplacian in Cartesian coordinates, leading to an incorrect formulation in polar coordinates. The correct polar Laplacian includes the term \(\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial r}\), which was omitted in the user's calculations. The conversation highlights the importance of accurately applying the Laplacian in different coordinate systems for deriving the Euler-Lagrange equations.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Laplacian operators in both Cartesian and polar coordinates
  • Familiarity with partial derivatives and their applications in physics
  • Knowledge of the Euler-Lagrange equation in classical mechanics
  • Basic concepts of coordinate transformations in mathematical physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Laplacian in polar coordinates, focusing on the inclusion of \(\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial r}\)
  • Explore the application of the Euler-Lagrange equation in different coordinate systems
  • Investigate the implications of coordinate transformations on physical systems
  • Review examples of potential energy formulations in polar coordinates
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics, particularly those studying classical mechanics, mathematical physics, or differential equations, will benefit from this discussion on coordinate transformations and the Laplacian operator.

touqra
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I don't know where have I gone wrong...
I converted Cartesian coordinates to polar coordinates:

[tex]\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} +\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial y^2}= \frac{1}{2}(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2 }{\partial y^2})\Psi^2 - \Psi(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2})\Psi<br /> =\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial r^2}+ \frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial \Phi^2}[/tex]

But on the left hand side (the Cartesian components) is just the Laplacian in 2D, but the final answer I got for the polar components is not equivalent to the Laplacian for polar coordinate system.
I'm missing the term [tex]\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial r}[/tex]
 
Last edited:
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You are misunderstanding something here.

[tex]{\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}\Psi^2<br /> = \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\Psi^2<br /> = \frac{\partial}{\partial x}( 2\Psi \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x})<br /> = 2 ({\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}})^2 + 2\Psi \frac{\partial^2 \Psi}{\partial^2 x}[/tex]

That doesn't seem consistent with your (wrong) equation.
 
Last edited:
[tex]\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} +\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial y^2}= \frac{1}{2}(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2 }{\partial y^2})\Psi^2 - \Psi(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2})\Psi=\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial r^2}+ \frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial \Phi^2}[/tex]

Ooops, I typed the wrong stuffs. I'm sorry.
It should read:

[tex](\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial x})^2 +(\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial y})^2= \frac{1}{2}(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2 }{\partial y^2})\Psi^2 - \Psi(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2})\Psi[/tex]

Next, I plug in the Laplacian for the polar coordinates, essentially cylindrical coordinate, with z constant, and I end up with:
[tex](\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial x})^2 +(\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial y})^2= (\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial r})^2+ \frac{1}{r^2}(\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial \Phi})^2[/tex]

Next, I am required to get the Euler Lagrange equation for a system. The above is just the potential part. The time derivative kinetic is just [tex]\frac{1}{2}m\dot{\Psi}^2[/tex]
Taking the Euler Lagrange for the Cartesian, I end up with an expression from the potential part:
[tex]\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} +\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial y^2}[/tex]
And this is just a Laplacian.

But when taking the Euler Lagrange for the polar coordinates, I end up with an expression [tex]\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial r^2}+\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial \Phi^2}[/tex]
and this is not equal to the Laplacian for the polar coordinates.
I am missing [tex]\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial r}[/tex]
 
Last edited:

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